Answer and Explanation:
A. Current ratio= current assets/current liabilities
= 33900+158200+135600/113000 = 2.9
B. Account Receivable Turnover = Sales/ Average account receivables
= 379100 -28000/158200+135600/2) = 2.39
c) Average collection period =
365/ account receivable turnover
= 365/2.39 =
152.72 days
D. inventory turnover = cost of goods sold / average inventory
= 203800/135600+113000/2 = 1.64
E. Days in inventory = 365/inventory turnover=
365/1.64 = 222.561 Days
F. Cash debt coverage
= cash from operating activities - dividend / total debt
= (58000 - 19600 )/(226000) = 0.17
G. Current cash debt coverage = net cash provided by the operating activities / average current liabilities
=58000 /113000 + 135600/2) = 0.467
H. Cash flow available = cash flow from operating activities - Capital Expenditure- Cash Dividend
$(58000-27500-19600)
= $10900
Answer:
26%
Explanation:
MV=Do(1+g)/(Ke-g)
Where MV is market value=$36
Do is current dividend per share=$6
g is growth rate=8%
Ke=?
By putting above values we get;
36=6(1+.08)/(Ke-.08)
36Ke-2.88=6+.48
36Ke=2.88+6+.48
Ke=9.36/36
Ke=26%
Answer:
a) $96 per unit
b) $224 per unit
c) 70%
Explanation:
We will have to compute variable cost and contribution margin
Sales $2,400,000
7,500 × 320
Less; Variable cost $720,000
Contribution margin $1,680,000
Less : Fixed cost $120,000
Operating income. $1,560,000
a) Variable cost per unit
= Total variable cost ÷ Total number of units
= $720,000 ÷ 7,500 units
= $96 per unit
b) Unit contribution margin
= Selling price per unit - Variable cost per unit
= $320 - $96
= $224
c) Contribution margin ratio
= (Selling price per unit - Variable cost per unit) ÷ Selling price per unit × 100
= ($320 - $96) ÷ $320 × 100
= $224 ÷ 320 × 100
= 70%
Answer:
The correct answer is $473 (Unfavorable).
Explanation:
According to the scenario, the given data are as follows:
Actual overhead = $11,183
Budgeted Overhead = $10,710
So, we can calculate the controllable variance by using following formula:
Controllable variance = Actual overhead - Budgeted overhead
By putting the value, we get
Controllable variance = $11,183 - $10,710
= $473 ( Positive shows unfavorable)
= $473 (unfavorable)
Answer:
the ending balance of the investment account is $870,000
Explanation:
The computation of the ending balance of the investment account is shown below:
= Beginning balane + [(earns - dividend) × (owns shares ÷total shares)]
= $750,000 + [($1,200,000 - $960,000) × (20,000 ÷ 40,000)]
= $750,000 + $120,000
= $870,000
Hence, the ending balance of the investment account is $870,000