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timama [110]
3 years ago
8

a process cost system, the cost of completed production in Department A is transferred to Department B by which of the following

entries? a. debit Finished Goods—Dept. A; credit Work in Process—Dept. B b. debit Work in Process—Dept. B; credit Work in Process—Dept. A c. debit Work in Process—Dept. B; credit Finished Goods—Dept. A d. debit Work in Process—Dept. B; credit Cost of Goods Sold—Dept. A
Business
1 answer:
oee [108]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

C. Debit Work in Process—Dept. B; credit Finished Goods—Dept. A

Explanation:

It is known that during continuous production, businesses find it difficult to isolate each individual unit and calculate a cost. Process costing systems accumulate the materials, labor and overhead costs for the period along with the total number of units produced. The total number of units produced includes both completed units and partially completed units. The company determines the percentage of completion for each partially completed unit and adds these amounts to the total number of completed units to determine the equivalent units.

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he Petteys family plans to buy a home for $224,900, and has been offered a 30-year mortgage with a rate of 5.5% if they make a 2
Dvinal [7]

Answer:

44,980

Explanation:

20 % of $224,900 = (20/100) × $224,900 = $44,980

3 0
3 years ago
The stockholders’ equity accounts of Cyrus Corporation on January 1, 2017, were as follows. Preferred Stock (7%, $100 par noncum
ivolga24 [154]

Answer:

Cash   30,000

   Common stock   20,000

  Additional paid-in 10,000

Treasury Stock  7,000

   Cash                          7,000

dividends     21,000

     dividends payable      21,000

dividends payable  21,000

           cash                      21,000

dividends     124,500 debit

  dividends payable    124,500 credit

dividends payable 124,500 debit

       cash                        124,500 credit

Explanation:

<u>Feb 1st</u>

5,000 x $4 = 20,000

Cash proceeds 30,000

addtional : 10,000

<u>March 20th</u>

1,000 shares x $7 per share = 7,000

<u>October 1st:</u>

300,000 preferred stock x 7% = 21,000 dividends

As we aren't paying right away we have a liaiblity.

Once are payed we write-off and post the cash outlay

<u>November 1st:</u>

common stock outstanding:

250,000 + 5,000 new shares - 6,000 trasury stock = 249,000

dividends payable:

249,000 shares x $0.5 per share = $124,500

<u>December 1st</u>

we write off the payable and post the cash outlay

8 0
3 years ago
risk is the risk of a decline in a bond's value due to an increase in interest rates. This risk is higher on bonds that have lon
Ipatiy [6.2K]

Answer:

<u>Price</u> risk is the risk of a decline in a bond's value due to an increase in interest rates. This risk is higher on bonds that have long maturities than on bonds that will mature in the near future.

<u>Reinvestment</u> risk is the risk that a decline in interest rates will lead to a decline in income from a bond portfolio. This risk is obviously high on callable bonds. It is also high on short-term bonds because the shorter the bond's maturity, the fewer the years before the relatively high old-coupon bonds will be replaced with new low-coupon issues.

Which type of risk is more relevant to an investor depends on the investor's <u>investment horizon</u>, which is the period of time an investor plans to hold a particular investment.

3 0
4 years ago
Marginal external benefit is​ _______.
Katyanochek1 [597]

Answer:

A

Explanation:

 Marginal external benefit is an extended benefit received by a thirty party, that is, people that are not directly involved as primary intended receiver of a good or service. Although the initial product or service benefits one party in particular, it is also an authomatic effect that brings benefit to other than the consumers of that product or service.

8 0
3 years ago
A medical facility does MRIs. Occasionally, the test yield inconclusive results and have to be repeated. Using the following sam
kupik [55]

Answer:

a) 0.118.

Explanation:

The computation of the UCL is shown below:

Given that

N = 100

<u>Sample    Sample size      Number of retests       fraction defective </u>

1                      100                     4                                0.04

2                     100                      11                               0.11

3                     100                      6                               0.06

4                     100                      10                              0.1

5                     100                     4                                0.04

6                     100                      6                              0.04

7                     100                      1                                0.01

8                     100                      6                               0.06

9                     100                      9                              0.09

10                   100                      11                               0.11

Total              1,000                   68

Now p is

= 68 ÷ 1000

= 0.068

Now the standard deviation is

= √p(1 - p) ÷ √n

= √0.068 × (1 - 0.068) ÷ √100

= 0.025

Now the UCL is

= p + z × standard deviation

= 0.068 + 2 × 0.025

= 0.118

5 0
3 years ago
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