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Viefleur [7K]
3 years ago
6

Any assistance would be great!

Mathematics
2 answers:
vladimir1956 [14]3 years ago
4 0

The domain is the input values, which would also be X values.

{ x |x= -5, -3, 1, 2,6}

frozen [14]3 years ago
4 0

For this case we have by definition that the domain of a function y = f (x) is the set of all the values that the variable x takes, for which the function is defined. They are also represented by the starting set.

It is observed in the figure, that the domain is:

{x | x = -3,2, -5,1,6}\\{x | x = -5, -3,1,2,6}

Answer:

Option A

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Igoryamba

Answer:

(13.8,1.42) (18,3.7)(16.7,3.21) and so on REMEMBER ITS (X,Y)

Step-by-step explanation:

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3 years ago
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Please help with this ASAP
uranmaximum [27]

Answer:

7w^3/5v

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42v^3w^4/30v^4w

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7v^3w^4/5v^4w

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7 0
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A tourist in France wants to visit 8 different cities. If the route is randomly selected, what is the probability that she will
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Answer:

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7 0
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Read 2 more answers
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Answer:

A), B) and D) are true

Step-by-step explanation:

A) We can prove it as follows:

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B) When you compute the product Ax, the i-th component is the matrix of the i-th column of A with x, denote this by Ai x. Then, we have that ||Ax||=\sqrt{(A_1 x)^2+\cdots (A_n x)^2}. Now, the colums of A are orthonormal so we have that (Ai x)^2=x_i^2. Then ||Ax||=\sqrt{(x_1)^2+\cdots (x_n)^2}=||x||.

C) Consider S=\{(0,2),(2,0)\}\subseteq \mathbb{R}^2. This set is orthogonal because (0,2)\cdot(2,0)=0(2)+2(0)=0, but S is not orthonormal because the norm of (0,2) is 2≠1.

D) Let A be an orthogonal matrix in \mathbb{R}^n. Then the columns of A form an orthonormal set. We have that A^{-1}=A^t. To see this, note than the component b_{ij} of the product A^t A is the dot product of the i-th row of A^t and the jth row of A. But the i-th row of A^t is equal to the i-th column of A. If i≠j, this product is equal to 0 (orthogonality) and if i=j this product is equal to 1 (the columns are unit vectors), then A^t A=I    

E) Consider S={e_1,0}. S is orthogonal but is not linearly independent, because 0∈S.

In fact, every orthogonal set in R^n without zero vectors is linearly independent. Take a orthogonal set \{u_1,u_2\cdots u_p\} and suppose that there are coefficients a_i such that a_1u_1+a_2u_2\cdots a_nu_n=0. For any i, take the dot product with u_i in both sides of the equation. All product are zero except u_i·u_i=||u_i||. Then a_i||u_i||=0 then a_i=0.  

5 0
3 years ago
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