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WITCHER [35]
4 years ago
7

Which of the following is not a requirement for an asset to be depreciable? (a) It must have a life longer than 1 year. (b) It m

ust have a basis (initial purchase plus installation cost) greater than $1,000. (c) It must be held with the intent to produce income. (d) It must wear out or get used up.
Business
1 answer:
DiKsa [7]4 years ago
3 0

Answer:

option (b) It must have a basis (initial purchase plus installation cost) greater than $1,000

Explanation:

The correct answer for the given question that is the option which is not the requirement of depreciation is option b) "It must have a basis (initial purchase plus installation cost) greater than $1,000".

The depreciation means the loss in the value of an object or equipment or so due to the wear and tear caused to the item in due course of time of its usage.

Thus, from the definition it can be concluded that the option b)  is not an requirement for an asset to be depreciable.

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If the findings and the results are not presented properly, the research completed was a waste of time and money. True False
Mekhanik [1.2K]

The correct answer is true


5 0
3 years ago
A firm has current assets that could be sold for their book value of $32 million. The book value of its fixed assets is $70 mill
pickupchik [31]

Answer:

Market value of equity / book value of equity   72/52 = 1.38

The company is a little overvalued.

It means that the assets they have because the rate is declining, have a higher yield than the market, that's why their market value increase, therefore the investor will pay more to acquire the company or shares of the company because their profits will be above the common of the industry.

Explanation:

concept                book value       market value          diference

current assets     32 millons          32 millons                        0

long term assets 70 millons         100 millons     +30,000,000

liabilities               50 millons         60 millons        -10,000,000

<em>TOTALS           70+32  - 50= 52    32+100-60=72     +20,000,000</em>

Market value of equity / book value of equity   72/52 = 1.38

This ratio <em>tries to determinate if a company is being undervalued or overvalued.</em>

It is <u>usually good to </u>help a third party at the task of  determinate whether or not <em>a company's market value is suffering from speculation</em> (when extremely overvalued)

When the ratio is <u>below 1 It will mean that it is undervalued.</u> The manager may interpret this that third parties see the company cheap while trading.

When it is <u>above 1, it is overvalued,</u> this means an investor will pay more for a portion of the company than it really has.  This can lead to thinking that forecast profit is rising and because of that the investors are paying a premium. But if it gets really high, then it is saying that the company is subject to speculation and the price bubble may explode anytime.

7 0
3 years ago
Employees who work on commission typically work in<br> education
faltersainse [42]

Answer:

Is this true or false? What are the options to answer

Explanation:

A sales commission is a sum of money paid to an employee upon completion of a task, usually selling a certain amount of goods or services. Employers sometimes use sales commissions as incentives to increase worker productivity. A commission may be paid in addition to a salary or instead of a salary. The Fair Labor Standards Act (FLSA) does not require the payment of commissions.

8 0
3 years ago
Barney Corporation recognized a $100 million preferred stock balance on 12/31/2019.
mrs_skeptik [129]

Answer:

C. $120m

Explanation:

As per the given situation, the calculation of the ended year the preferred stock is shown below:

Ending preferred stock balance

= Beginning balance of preferred stock + new issuance of preferred stock

= $100 million + $20 million

= $120 million

Therefore, for computing the ending preferred stock balance we simply applied the above formula and ignore all other values as they are not relevant. So the correct answer is C.

5 0
4 years ago
The following information was compiled by Frank Ironman Incorporated:
Bumek [7]

Answer:

The correct option is D,$20,000 unfavorable

Explanation:

In the first place, it is noteworthy that fixed overhead flexible budget variance is the between the budgeted overhead cost and the actual fixed overhead incurred.

When actual fixed cost overhead is lower than budgeted,the resultant effect is a favorable variance,where the reverse is the case when the budgeted fixed overhead cost is higher as is the case here.

budgeted fixed overhead costs              $200,000

Actual fixed overhead costs                      ($220,000)

fixed overhead flexible budget variance  ($20,000) unfavorable

8 0
3 years ago
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