The degree of operatingleverage is calculated by the formular
(sales - variable cost) / (sales - fixed cost - variable cost).
In the given question,
sales = $2,000,000
variable cost = $1,100,000
fixed cost = $750,000
The degree of operating leverage is (2,000,000 - 1,100,000) / (2,000,000 - 750,000 - 1,100,000) = 900,000 / 150,000 = 6.
Therefore, the degree of operating leverage is 6.
Answer:
A). x + 4 + x = 20
<u>Multiple-choices</u>
A). x + 4 + x = 20
B). 4 + x + 4 = 20
C). x = 20 + 4 + 4
D). 4 = 20 + x + x
Explanation:
The mirror will be in the middle of a wall which is 20 feet wide.
If the mirror is 4 feet, then 4 will be in the middle.
X will be on either side of the 4feet mirror.
Therefore:
x + 4 + x =20
Answer: C) can denominate the sale in either currency and use the foreign exchange market to convert currency
Explanation:
The options to the question are:
A) will denominate the sale in its own currency since it is too hard to convert foreign currency
B) will denominate the sale in the currency of the buyer since it is too hard for them toconvert foreign currency
C) can denominate the sale in either currency and use the foreign exchange market to convert currency
D) can use the OTC market to convert receipts in the future and the exchange markets to convert receipts in the spot market.
Since the company from Country A I the one selling merchandise to the company from Country B, it means that the company from Country A can denominate the sale in either currency and use the foreign exchange market to convert currency.
Answer:
The formula is
Price of the bond = [ $25 x ( 1 - ( 1 + 2.35% )^-30 )/ 2.35% ] + [ $1,000 / ( 1 + 2.35% )^30 ]
Explanation:
To calculate the price of the bond, use the following formula
Price of the bond = [ Coupon payment x ( 1 - ( 1 + Semiannual market rate )^-numbers od periods )/ Semiannual market rate ] + [ Face value / ( 1 + Semiannual market rate )^numbers of periods ]
Where
Coupon payment = $1,000 x 5% x 6/12 = $25
Semiannual market rate = 4.7% x 6/12 = 2.35%
Numbers of periods = 15 years x 12/6 = 30
Face value = $1,000
Placing values in the formula
Price of the bond = [ $25 x ( 1 - ( 1 + 2.35% )^-30 )/ 2.35% ] + [ $1,000 / ( 1 + 2.35% )^30 ]
Answer:
Undervalued
Explanation:
The PPP exchange rate is the implicit exchange rate, so that everywhere, one dollar has the same purchasing power. In general, this exchange rate is different from the exchange rate on the market.
Because the same nominal GDP translates to a higher real GDP by using the PPP exchange rate, one Pakistan Rupee must be valued more in terms of U.S. dollars than in contexts of the market exchange rate under the PPP exchange rate. The Pakistan Rupee is therefore worth less than its true value in the economy, i.e., undervalued.
