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Archy [21]
3 years ago
15

In Year 1, the actual budget deficit was $200 billion and the standardized deficit was $150 billion. In Year 2, the actual budge

t deficit was $225 billion and the standardized deficit was $175 billion. GDP was $1000 billion in Year 1 and $1005 billion in Year 2. It can be concluded that fiscal policy from Year 1 to Year 2 was: 
A. Proportional

B. Inflationary

C. Contractionary

D. Expansionary
Business
1 answer:
Sergeeva-Olga [200]3 years ago
6 0

Answer: Option (D) is correct.

Explanation:

From the information given in the question, it was observed that fiscal policy in year 2 is expansionary by comparing it with the fiscal policy in year 1.

The budget deficit in year 1 is $200 billion and in year 2 is $225 billion, so there is an increase in the budget deficit from year 1 to year 2. This means that there is an implementation of expansionary policy either by increasing government spending or decreasing taxes.

On the other hand, standardized deficit also increases from year 1 to year 2, which is also an indication of expansionary fiscal policy.

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Miller Corporation has a premium bond making semiannual payments. The bond pays a coupon of 10 percent, has a YTM of 8 percent,
Degger [83]

Answer:

          Miller Bond:                    

Today:      1,166.63

1-year       1,159.83

4-years     1,135.90

9-years     1,081.11

13-years   1,018.86

14-years  1,000 (maturity)

Modigliani Bond

Today:     851.01

1-year      856.25

4-years    875.38

9-years     922.78

13-years   981.41

14-years  1,000 (maturity)

Explanation:

The present value will be the discount coupon payment and maturirty at the YTM rate:

<u>Miller Bond:</u>

The coupon payment are calcualte as ordinary annuity

C \times \frac{1-(1+r)^{-time} }{rate} = PV\\

C 50.00 (1,000 x 10% / 2)

time      28 (14 years x 2 payment per year)

rate   0.04 (8% YTM / 2 payment per year)

50 \times \frac{1-(1+0.04)^{-28} }{0.04} = PV\\

PV $833.1532

While Maturity, using the lump sum formula

\frac{Maturity}{(1 + rate)^{time} } = PV  

Maturity  $1,000.00

time   28 semesters

rate  0.04

\frac{1000}{(1 + 0.04)^{28} } = PV  

PV   333.48

PV coupon $833.1532  +PV maturity  $333.4775  = Total $1,166.6306

For the subsequent time we must adjust t

in one year, there will be 26 payment until maturity

50 \times \frac{1-(1+0.04)^{-26} }{0.04} = PV\\

PVcoupon $799.1385

\frac{1000}{(1 + 0.04)^{26} } = PV  

PVmaturity   360.69

Total $1,159.8277

As the bond get closer to maturity it will get closer to face value until maturity when it will equalize it.

<u>We recalculate the same formula with values of:</u>

in 4-year : then 10 years to maturity t = 20

in 9-years: then 5 years to maturity t= 10

in 13-years: 1 year to maturity t = 2

at 14 years: is maturity date so equals the face value of 1,000

<em>Remember:</em> there are two payment per year.

Same process will be done with Modigliani bond:

C \times \frac{1-(1+r)^{-time} }{rate} = PV\\

C 1,000 x 8% / 2 payment per year : 40.00

time: 14 years x 2 payment per year = 28 payment

rate 10% annual rate /2 = 0.05

40 \times \frac{1-(1+0.05)^{-28} }{0.05} = PV\\

PV coupon $595.9251

\frac{Maturity}{(1 + rate)^{time} } = PV  

Maturity $ 1,000.00

time   28 semester

rate  0.05

\frac{1000}{(1 + 0.05)^{28} } = PV  

PV  maturity 255.09

PV coupon $595.9251  + PV maturity  $255.0936 = Total $851.0187

and then we calcualte for the same values of t we are asked for the Miller bond.

8 0
3 years ago
Assume €1 = $1.1364 and $1 = S$1.2408. A new coat costs S$213 in Singapore. How much will the identical coat cost in euros if ab
alexandr402 [8]

Answer:

151.05 euro

Explanation:

The computation is shown below:

Data provided in the question

€1 = $1.1364

$1 = $1.2408

And the new coat cost is $213 in Singapore

So, by considering the above information

The 1 euro = $1.1364 × $1.2408 = $1.4100512

So,

$1 = 1 ÷ $1.4100512 euro = 0.709194

So, the identical coat cost is

= $213 ×  0.709194

= 151.05 euro

5 0
4 years ago
__________ states that adding more people to a late project makes the project later.
kiruha [24]
Brook's Law is the statement that adding more people to a late project makes the project later.
5 0
3 years ago
If there are sticky wages, and the price level is greater than what was expected, then....
Alborosie
Im ony in middle school sorry
5 0
3 years ago
In companies that do not have "no lay-off" policies, the total direct labor cost for a budget period is computed by multiplying
kari74 [83]

Answer:

a. True

Explanation:

The formula to compute the total direct labor budget for the budget time period is shown below;

Total direct labor budget = Total direct labor hours required × direct labor wage rate

Through multiplying the direct labor hours required with the direct labor wage rate we can get the total direct labor budget and the same is to be considered

Hence, the correct option is a. True

4 0
3 years ago
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