The answer to your question is y=1
Answer:
1 / q^30.
Step-by-step explanation:
[(p^2)(q^5)]^-4 * [(p^-4)(q^5)]^-2
Using the law (a^b)^c = a^bc :-
= p^-8 * q^-20 * p^8 * q^-10
= p^(-8+8) * q^(-20-10)
= p^0 * q^-30
= 1 * q^-30.
= 1 / q^30.
Answer:
220
Step-by-step explanation:
110 cannot be the lcm for 20 but 10 and 110
so 220 can be the lcm for 20, 10, and 110
hope this helps
<span>Tan(x) = sin(x) / cos(x). Therefore, tan(x) pi/2 = 1/0, which doesn't exist. Imagine that, instead of 0, it's a number incredibly close to 0. The smaller the number in the denominator, the bigger the outcome. Therefore, we can think of 1/0 as infinity, or approaching infinity as one gets closer to 1/0. This is the same result approaching from the negative side, only it's negative infinity. If x=0, it's 0/1 instead (sin 0=0, cos 0=1). Anything divided by 1 is itself, so as x approaches 0, so does f(x).</span>
