“For a sole reason: stopping Russian expansion. the Russian empire could've easily defeated the ottomans, for a number of strategic and military reasons. Britain and France (and some others like the kingdom of Sardinia) entered the war so that Russia would lose, and fall back to its borders.” Need more explanation?
Explanation:
the growth of suburbs and the increased affordability of cars
the advances in technology and the growth in unemployment
the end of the great depression and the beginning of the cold war
the rise of conformity and the attitude of the beat generation
The workers were too far apart and there were too many companies, so it was not possible for them to make a huge country-wide union because the people didn't even know each other. This enabled the companies to beat unions more easily when it came to worker rights.
The similarity between the two Industrial Revolutions is that they both involved an increase in the degree to which machines were being used to do tasks that had once been done in other ways. Yes, there were differences in that the earlier Industrial Revolution was more about things capital goods like steam engines while the second was about consumer goods. But, in both cases, the main thing that was going on was an increase in the use of machinery. This is what they have in common and what makes it legitimate to call both of these "Industrial Revolutions."
I’d say the answer is either B or D - I’m not sure though.
