1answer.
Ask question
Login Signup
Ask question
All categories
  • English
  • Mathematics
  • Social Studies
  • Business
  • History
  • Health
  • Geography
  • Biology
  • Physics
  • Chemistry
  • Computers and Technology
  • Arts
  • World Languages
  • Spanish
  • French
  • German
  • Advanced Placement (AP)
  • SAT
  • Medicine
  • Law
  • Engineering
Ivanshal [37]
3 years ago
12

Why would Washington state the United States would be "friendly and impartial" in regard to foreign conflict?

History
2 answers:
exis [7]3 years ago
3 0
<span>When Washington said that, the United States would be "friendly and impartial" in regards to foreign conflicts he was , in essence, saying that, the United States would remain neutral....</span>
Dahasolnce [82]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

Washington stated the United States would be "friendly and impartial" in regard to foreign conflict because he wanted to avoid a possible war on their territory or an invasion.

Explanation:

The president stated this in his Farewell Address because he felt the States  were still weak and vulnerable to possible internal or external attacks. He wanted the States to remain neutral and united above all, so he reminded them of the importance of being united. He discouraged the citizens from having internal conflicts since this would make them even weaker if a battle broke out. Being <em>friendly and impartial</em> would enable them to mantain pacifist foreign relations and benefit economically from these. However, this did not happen when World War II broke out and America joined the Allies.

You might be interested in
What items did rome trade to get goods from other countries​
rjkz [21]
Beef, corn, glassware, iron, leather, Spain, purple dye, timber, olive oil
8 0
3 years ago
Which of these men was a leading land developer in Denver?
valkas [14]

Answer:

William Larimer

Explanation:

4 0
3 years ago
Which of the following was responsible for unionizing SKILLED workers?
miv72 [106K]
The answer is.... American federation of labor ! Check the photo... its the actual answer! Hope this helped:) ✌️

5 0
3 years ago
Under the Investment Advisers Act of 1940, which of the following statements is TRUE? An investment adviser is defined as a pers
GenaCL600 [577]

Answer:

The answer is TRUE.

Explanation:

According to the act, anyone who provides advice or makes a recommendation on securities (as opposed to another type of investment) is considered an investment adviser.

8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
The purpose of the Alliance for Progress was to provide aid to struggling Latin
JulijaS [17]

Answer:

True

Explanation:

7 0
3 years ago
Other questions:
  • How can the united states classify its government structure according to system and executive power?
    6·2 answers
  • Explain how women and african americans were affected by the postwar economy
    10·2 answers
  • What was the tax that parliament levied on the colonists called
    15·1 answer
  • Which of the following could be considered a structural way to limit government
    5·1 answer
  • How did president john f. kennedy most support civil rights?
    15·1 answer
  • Hurry timed test this is on my finals!!!!!
    8·1 answer
  • What invention from industry period has had the most impact in the daily life
    14·2 answers
  • Why were Native Americans so diverse?
    11·1 answer
  • What percent of Ukrainians think of themselves as Russians? And does Russia have an justification for taking the territory of an
    9·1 answer
  • Sa ating pangkasalukuyang panahon, masasabi mo bang patuloy na nagaganap ang mga ideolohiyang Kolonyalismo at Imperyalismo? Ipal
    14·1 answer
Add answer
Login
Not registered? Fast signup
Signup
Login Signup
Ask question!