Answer:
A perfectly elastic demand curve means that the firm can sell as much output as it chooses at the current price.
Explanation:
The perfectly elastic demand implies that the demand curve is horizontal line parallel to the X axis. The price is fixed at a point and the firm can sell any amount of output at this point. The demand is infinite at the given price level. If the firm makes any changes in this price level, the demand will become zero.
Answer:
Here the Marla's company can be best described as C) border less organization.
Explanation:
Border less organization which is also commonly know as transnational corporation, is best used to describe a multinational organization, which has its head quarter in one country and various offices, facilities in multiple countries. Being this type of corporation helps a company in targeting larger customer base , utilizing national competences .
Answer:
The correct answer is D
Explanation:
Disparate treatment is the treatment which differing conduct or performed toward the individuals, where the differences are grounded on the individual age, colour, national origin, race, disability or religion status.
This treatment would be legal if the discrimination would be BFOQ (termed as bona fide occupational qualification), the courts must have held that in few situations that the factor like sex or religion might be BFOQ, which is important qualification for performing a job.
Answer:
transferred-out 135,000
Explanation:
We solve using the following identity:
beginning WIP + cost added during the period:
total cost to be accounted for.
Then this value can be either ransferred-out r remain at the ending WIP
so we construct as follows:
beginning 0
added 180,000
Total cost 180,000
ending <u> (45,000) </u>
transferred-out 135,000
Answer:
The answer is III) make simultaneous trades in two markets without any net investment.
Explanation:
Arbitrage is simultaneously buying an asset ( may be currency, securities...) in a low-priced market and sell it in a high-priced market.
As a results, the investor earns profit from price differences in the two markets without risk and net investment. It is because the two trading happens at the same time once price differences in any two markets are recognized ( arbitrage opportunities recognized) and the proceed of selling the asset is immediately used for financing/returning to the buying of the asset.
Thus, (III) is the correct answer.
