Answer:
Benefit: 10,000
Explanation:
Salaries terminated: 390,000
decrease in misc overhead 30,000
outsourcing tariff: (410,000)
Benefit: 10,000
The most questions most important issue is how to account the 120,000 assistant and the fixed cost that will be allocate to other department.
The truth is, this are not relevant cost.
As the company would hire this assistant in the near future if the H/R is not outsource as the company won't keep them if they aren't useful.
Also the allocate cost are cost from other operations not related to human resources. So ust be disregard from the calcualtion.
We should consider only the explicit decrease, which are the salaries and fewer tracable overhead.
Answer:
(a) The stock price of Harrods be after the acquisition is £ 31.45
(b) The exchange ratio between the two stocks would be 0.8550
Explanation:
Harrods PLC has a market value of £139 million and 5 million shares outstanding.
Selfridge Department Store has a market value of £41 million and 2 million shares outstanding.
a) If Harrods offers 1.2 million shares of its stock in exchange for the 2 million shares of Selfridge
Shares outstanding = 5 + 1.2 = 6.2 million
Stock price = £ 195 million ÷ 6.2 million = £ 31.45
b) alpha × 195 = 51
alpha = £51 million ÷ £195 million
= 26.15%
(195 ÷ ( 5 +X ) ) × X = 51
51 (5+X) = 195X
255 + 51X = 195X
144X = 255
X = 1.77 million shares
Exchange ratio would be: 1.77 ÷ 2
= 0.8550
Answer:
Accountant 34,100 gain
Economist (6,500) loss
Explanation:
<u></u>
<u>Accountant:</u>
revenue 60,000
operating cost 25,000
Interest expense 900 ( 30,000 x 3%)
net income 34,100
<u>Economist: </u>
revenue 60,000
explicit cost 25,900
<em>implicit cost (opportunity cost):</em>
savings yield:
20,000 x 3% = 600
painter job 40,000
economic loss (6,500)
Answer:
Accounts receivable will be reported at the net amount of cash expected to be collected.
Bad debt expense is recorded at the time an actual bad debt is written-off.
Explanation:
Accounts receivable will be reported at the net amount of cash expected to be collected. One of the criticism of the direct match off method is that its violate the matching concept and as such account receivable won't be equal to the net amount of cash.
Bad debt expense is recorded at the time an actual bad debt is written-off. Bad debt is recorded when the debt is deemed to be irrecoverable.
Answer:
$85,000
Explanation:
Calculation for the goodwill impairment loss to be reported on Dec 31 under current US GAAP
First step is to calculate the Goodwill implied fair value
Goodwill implied fair value=($3,310,000-$3,170,000)
Goodwill implied fair value=$140,000
Now let calculate the Impairment loss using this formula
Impairment loss = Goodwill implied fair value - Goodwill book value
Let plug in the formula
Impairment loss= $140,000 - $225,000
Impairment loss = $85,000
Therefore the goodwill impairment loss to be reported on Dec 31 under current US GAAP is $85,000
