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Anika [276]
3 years ago
10

Please help! ASAP! Thanks!

Mathematics
2 answers:
Zarrin [17]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

A. The graph of g(x) will eventually exceed the graph of f(x).

Step-by-step explanation:

We are given the functions,

f(x)=0.001^x and g(x)=0.001x

Now, 'y-intercepts are the points where the graph cuts y-axis i.e. where x= 0'.

So, substituting x= 0, we get,

f(0)=0.001^0 i.e. f(0) = 1

g(0)=0.001\times 0 i.e. g(0 )= 0

That is, the function f(x) have y-intercept at 1 and the function g(x) have y-intercept at 0.

So,options C and D are not correct.

We have the table,

x                                f(x)=0.001^x                                 g(x)=0.001x

1                                0.001                                               0.001

2                             0.00001                                             0.002      

3                         0.000000001                                        0.003

4                       0.000000000001                                   0.004

So, we get that the fucntion g(x) is increasing as the value of x is increasing as compared to f(x)/

Hence, the graph of g(x) will eventually exceed the graph of f(x).

So, option A is correct.

Fed [463]3 years ago
5 0
<span> (A) is your answer. The graph of g(x) will eventually exceed the graph of f(x). </span>
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