1answer.
Ask question
Login Signup
Ask question
All categories
  • English
  • Mathematics
  • Social Studies
  • Business
  • History
  • Health
  • Geography
  • Biology
  • Physics
  • Chemistry
  • Computers and Technology
  • Arts
  • World Languages
  • Spanish
  • French
  • German
  • Advanced Placement (AP)
  • SAT
  • Medicine
  • Law
  • Engineering
9966 [12]
3 years ago
6

The money being made in a company. A. Obsolesce B. Solvency C. Revenue D. Debt

Business
2 answers:
Vladimir79 [104]3 years ago
8 0
The answer is..
Revenue!
Hope this helps..
riadik2000 [5.3K]3 years ago
8 0

The money being made in a company is <u>"revenue".</u>


Revenue is the measure of cash that an organization really gets amid a particular period, including limits and derivations for returned stock. It is the best line or gross pay figure from which costs are subtracted to decide overall gain.  

Revenue is determined by duplicating the cost at which products or administrations are sold by the quantity of units or sum sold.  

Revenue is otherwise called sales on the income statement.

You might be interested in
Net Worth is equal to assets minus liabilities. Which event will have the greatest impact (positive or negative) on one's net wo
ad-work [718]
I would say that for most people, buying an apartment or a house would be the most major thing they could do that would affect their net worth. Initially it would be mostly a liability at first but as it appreciates, especially if it is in a big city where the population keeps growing then it most likely will appreciate and then the owner's assets will increase since their equity will increase.
7 0
3 years ago
The following cost data relate to the manufacturing activities of Chang Company during the just completed year:
Elza [17]

Answer:

Amount of underapplied or overapplied overhead cost for the year

$97000 - Underapplied

Schedule of cost of goods manufactured for the year

Direct Material                                3885000

Direct Labor                                      60000

Overheads                                       376000

Total Manufacturing Costs             4321000

Add Opening Inventory WIP           400000

Less Closing Inventory WIP            (700000)

Cost of Goods Manufactured         4021000

Explanation:

Amount of underapplied or overapplied overhead cost for the year

Underapplied or Overapplied overhead cost =Actual Overhead - Applied Overhead

$473000-$376000= $ 97000

Schedule of cost of goods manufactured for the year

<em>Direct Materials  Calculation  </em>                                  

Opening                                                      200000

Add Purchases                                         4000000

Available                                                    4200000

Less Closing Material                                 300000

Materials Consumed                                  3900000

Less Indirect Materials                                 15000

Direct Materials Consumed                       3885000

8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
A company's flexible budget for the range of 35,000 units to 45,000 units of production showed variable overhead costs of $2 per
Gnom [1K]

Answer:

c. $3,200 favorable.

Explanation:

We know that

Total controllable cost variance = Budgeted overhead cost - actual overhead cost

where,

Budgeted overhead cost =  Variable overhead + Fixed overhead

where,

Variable overhead = 40,000 units × $2 = $80,000

And, the fixed overhead = $72,000

So, the budgeted overhead = $152,000

And, the actual one is $148,800

So, the total controllable cost variance would be

= $152,000 - $148,800

= $3,200 favorable

7 0
3 years ago
Barga Co.'s net sales for Year 1 and Year 2 are $663,000 and $744,000, respectively. Its year-end balances of accounts receivabl
MrRa [10]

Answer:

Year 1 = 35.23 days

Year 2 = 44.64 days

Explanation:

Days' Sales Uncollected = Accounts receivable / Net Sales * Days

Year 1 = $64,000 / $663,000 * 365 days = 35.23 days

Year 2= $91,000 / $744,000 * 365 days = 44.64 days

4 0
3 years ago
The company recently reported an EBITDA of $22.5 million and $5.4 million of net income. The company has $6 million interest exp
blsea [12.9K]

Answer:

Depreciation and amortization is $7.5 million

Explanation:

If the tax rate is 40%, then the  net income is 60%

tax expense=net income*tax rate/60%=$5.4 million/60%*40%=$3.6 million

Depreciation and amortization=EBITDA-tax-interest-net income

EBITDA is $22.5 million

interest is $6 million

net income is $5.4 million

Depreciation and amortization=$22.5 milion-$6 million-$3.6 million-$5.4 million

Depreciation and amortization=$7.5 million

6 0
3 years ago
Other questions:
  • Rondelle, the manager of a busy hair salon, knows that she needs to entrust many of her tasks to supervisors and other employees
    13·1 answer
  • (1) Cash balance per bank, July 31, $8,338.
    13·1 answer
  • A merger between u.s. steel and general motors would be an example of a
    7·1 answer
  • You borrow $2,500. you are to pay back the loan in 36 monthly payments of $79.50. what true annual interest are you paying to th
    14·2 answers
  • If a company would still have a cash flow item even if they rejected potential new Project A, should this particular cash flow i
    12·1 answer
  • Jen traded in her old car for her heart's desire, a new Lexus sedan. The Lexus is considered a specialty product.
    15·2 answers
  • A​ company's production department was experiencing a high defect rate on the assembly​ line, which was slowing down production
    7·1 answer
  • Why are organizational goals broken into sub goals that are assigned to departments
    9·1 answer
  • there are external vendors that stock and maintain magazine departments of the kmart retail establishment. they don't posess the
    11·1 answer
  • price index was 128 in year 1, and the inflation rate was 24 percent between year 1 and year 2. the price index in year 2 was a.
    5·1 answer
Add answer
Login
Not registered? Fast signup
Signup
Login Signup
Ask question!