Question

Why does this not exist? I thought if you plugged in infinity, you would just get infinity. Do you not plug in infinity?

Answer 1

Answer:

See below

Step-by-step explanation:

It does not exist because the

$(-1)^x$

doesn't tend to some value it just loop around

$-1, 1$

for ever

it exist when we have

$\lim_{x\rightarrow \infty}[(\frac{1}{x})]$

there when the value of x increasing the fractions tends to 0

so we can say that when x approaches infinity the value is 0.

Tell me if i haven't made myself clear