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Andrei [34K]
3 years ago
7

Specific tariffs are

Business
1 answer:
Leni [432]3 years ago
3 0

Answer: (B) import taxes calculated as a fixed charge for each unit of imported goods

Explanation:

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A firm has current assets that could be sold for their book value of $32 million. The book value of its fixed assets is $70 mill
pickupchik [31]

Answer:

Market value of equity / book value of equity   72/52 = 1.38

The company is a little overvalued.

It means that the assets they have because the rate is declining, have a higher yield than the market, that's why their market value increase, therefore the investor will pay more to acquire the company or shares of the company because their profits will be above the common of the industry.

Explanation:

concept                book value       market value          diference

current assets     32 millons          32 millons                        0

long term assets 70 millons         100 millons     +30,000,000

liabilities               50 millons         60 millons        -10,000,000

<em>TOTALS           70+32  - 50= 52    32+100-60=72     +20,000,000</em>

Market value of equity / book value of equity   72/52 = 1.38

This ratio <em>tries to determinate if a company is being undervalued or overvalued.</em>

It is <u>usually good to </u>help a third party at the task of  determinate whether or not <em>a company's market value is suffering from speculation</em> (when extremely overvalued)

When the ratio is <u>below 1 It will mean that it is undervalued.</u> The manager may interpret this that third parties see the company cheap while trading.

When it is <u>above 1, it is overvalued,</u> this means an investor will pay more for a portion of the company than it really has.  This can lead to thinking that forecast profit is rising and because of that the investors are paying a premium. But if it gets really high, then it is saying that the company is subject to speculation and the price bubble may explode anytime.

7 0
3 years ago
Stars are _____, according to the bcg matrix. stars have included apple and the diamond company debeers.
Licemer1 [7]

<span>The answer is ’are business units or products that have the greatest market share and produce the most cash’. Monopolies and first-to-market products are commonly termed stars. On the other hand, because of their high growth rate, stars also use large amounts of cash. This commonly results in the same amount of money coming in that is going out. </span>

4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
3. If the average price of an airline ticket on a certain route rises from $200 to $250, the number of tickets sold drop from 80
mash [69]

Answer:

-Price elasticity of demand=0.77

-The demand is inelastic because the elasticity is 0.77 and this number is less than 1.

Explanation:

The formula to calculate the price elasticity of demand is:

Price elasticity of demand=% change in the quantity demanded/% change in the price

To use this formula you have to calculate the % change in the quantity demanded and % change in the price:

% change in the quantity demanded=(Q2-Q1/((Q2+Q1)/2))*100

% change in the quantity demanded=(250-200/((250+200)/2))*100

% change in the quantity demanded=(50/(450/2))*100

% change in the quantity demanded=(50/225)*100

% change in the quantity demanded=22.22%

% change in the price=(P2-P1/((P2+P1)/2))*100

% change in the price=(600-800/((600+800)/2))*100

% change in the price=(-200/(1400/2))*100

% change in the price=(-200/700)*100

% change in the price=-28.57%

Now, you can replace the values in the formula to to calculate the price elasticity of demand:

Price elasticity of demand= 22.22%/-28.57%

Price elasticity of demand=0.77

The price elasticity of the demand is 0.77. An elastic demand is when the elasticity is greater than 1 and an inelastic demand is when the elasticity is less than one. So, according to this, the demand is inelastic because the elasticity is 0.77 and this number is less than 1.

8 0
4 years ago
Roman Industries' plant operates five days per week with a daily payroll of $6,000. Employees are paid every Saturday for the wo
Sergeu [11.5K]

Answer:

$12,000

Explanation:

Calculation to determine the amount of Wages Expense recorded on the next payday, Saturday, April 3

Using this formula

Wages Expense=Daily payroll *2 days

Let plug in the formula

Wages Expense=$6,000*2 days

Wages Expense=$12,000

Therefore the amount of Wages Expense recorded on the next payday, Saturday, April 3 is $12,000

4 0
3 years ago
Which of the following is not a benefit to using credit instead of cash?
Ksivusya [100]
Using credit allows you to make impulsive buys - this is not a benefit to using credit instead of cash. It is never good to make impulsive buys, you just waste money on something that you usually don't even need. 
8 0
4 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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