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KIM [24]
3 years ago
11

The new performance management system at the Long Island Jewish Medical Center (L.IJ.M.C.) was specifically designed to address

which of the following problems with traditional performance reviews?
(A) Managers cannot complete tradtional performance reviews on time. (B) Ratings of employee traits are not effective measures of performance .
(C) Traditional performance reviews are unfair to minorities. (D) Performance reviews should not include self-evaluations.
Business
1 answer:
vredina [299]3 years ago
5 0

Answer: B; Ratings of employee traits are not effective measures of performance.

Explanation:

The performance of an employee in their work environment should be measured on how they perform their job duties. A persons traits can be more or less linked to some performance but it will be dependent on the leader's situation. Everyone has different traits in any job and each should be measured differently not together.

Some types of performance based appraisal systems will attempt to force management rate the employees on their actions and not their traits. By doing this, it will improve the companies performance ratings.

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What do organisations need to consider when implementing best practice performance management systems?
kolbaska11 [484]

Answer:

Remember that performance review is NOT performance management. ...

Identify the purpose of managing performance. ...

Clarify the work to be done. ...

Set goals and establish a performance plan. ...

Conduct regular and frequent coaching. ...

Conduct a formal review of performance.

Explanation:

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7 0
3 years ago
a. Only institutions, and not individuals, can participate in derivatives market transactions. b. If you purchased 100 shares of
Marina CMI [18]

Answer:

e. As they are generally defined, money market transactions involve debt securities with maturities of less than one year.

Explanation:

Statement E, As they are generally defined, money market transactions involve debt securities with maturities of less than one year is true.

Statement A is not true. It is primary market transaction.

Statement B is not true. Individuals can also participate in derivatives market transactions.

Statement C is not true. The IPO market is a subset of the primary market.

Statement D is not true. It is a direct transfer of capital.

4 0
3 years ago
The main advantage of diversification as an investment policy is that it
Lera25 [3.4K]

Answer:

Minimising risk of loss

Explanation:

One of the most significant values of investment is to guarantee that you have a extended portfolio. The key advantage of constructing a portfolio is that it helps in Limiting danger of misfortune. If one venture performs ineffectively over a specific period, different speculations may perform better over that equivalent period, decreasing the potential misfortunes of your venture portfolio from concentrating all your capital under one kind of speculation.

4 0
3 years ago
The long-run aggregate supply curve would shift left if the amount of labor available
liq [111]

Answer:

The correct answer is option a.

Explanation:

The long run aggregate supply curve is inelastic and vertical in shape. The reason behind this is that in the long run the output level is not affected by the change in price level. It is rather affected by the quantity of inputs.

A leftward shift in the long run aggregate supply means that the output level is decreasing. This decrease in input in this case is either because of decrease in quantity of labor available,or because of increase in minimum wages the firms are hiring less labor.

So, option a is the correct answer.

8 0
3 years ago
To take advantage of an arbitrage opportunity, an investor would
Svetach [21]

Answer:

The answer is III) make simultaneous trades in two markets without any net investment.

Explanation:

Arbitrage is simultaneously buying an asset ( may be currency, securities...) in a low-priced market and sell it in a high-priced market.

As a results, the investor earns profit from price differences in the two markets without risk and net investment. It is because the two trading happens at the same time once price differences in any two markets are recognized ( arbitrage opportunities recognized) and the proceed of selling the asset is immediately used for financing/returning to the buying of the asset.

Thus, (III) is the correct answer.

5 0
3 years ago
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