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Alex17521 [72]
4 years ago
11

There are two acceptable methods for closing out any balances of under or overapplied overhead. One method involves allocation,

whereas the other closes any balance (if immaterial in amount) directly to:A) Finished Goods inventory.B) Cost of Goods Sold.C) Cost of Goods Manufactured.D) Work in Process inventory.
Business
1 answer:
Karolina [17]4 years ago
3 0

Answer:

B) Cost of Goods Sold.

Explanation:

Close the manufacturing overhead account agains Cost of goods sold

This method is done when the amount is  inconsequential. it is not important, it will not change havily the results and decision of the company.

   Overhead

<u>debit       credit    </u>

actual      applied

to close we will debit overhead and credit COGS (decreasing it)

when it was overapplied, as the applied cost was higher than actual cost.

If it was underapplied, we will credit overhead and debit COGS (thus, increasing it) to increase the applied cost up to the real cost.

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The net cash flows of Advantage Leasing for the next 3 years are $42,000, $49,000 and $64,000 respectively, after which the grow
geniusboy [140]

Answer:

The present value of terminal value is $ 863,689.48  

Explanation:

Terminal value=Cash flows at third year*(1+g)/WACC-g

cash flows at the third year is $64,000

g is the growth rate of net cash flows which is 2% in perpetuity

WACC is 8%

Terminal value=$64,000*(1+2%)/(8%-2%)

                       =$64000*1.02/0.06

                       =$ 1,088,000.00  

The present value of terminal=terminal value*discount factor in year 3

discount factor in year=1/(1+8%)^3=0.793832241

Present value of terminal cash flow=1,088,000.00 *0.79383224

                                                           =$ 863,689.48  

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Calculating the average time callers wait on the phone for technical support is an example of inferential statistics.A. TrueB. F
bearhunter [10]

Answer:

b) false

Explanation:

tell me if I'm wrong. mark me brainliest if this helps :)

8 0
3 years ago
Ajax Corp's sales last year were $400,000, its operating costs were $362,500, and its interest charges were $12,500. What was th
Gala2k [10]

Answer:

times-interest-earned ratio will be 3

So option (a) will be correct answer

Explanation:

We have given total sales = $400000

Operating expenses = $362500

And interest charges = $12500

So earning before interest and taxes = sales - operating cost = $400000 - $362500 = $37500

We have to find the times-interest-earned ratio

So times-interest-earned ratio is given by

times-interest-earned ratio = \frac{earning\ before\ interest\ and\ taxes}{interest\ expense}=\frac{37500}{12500}=3

So option (A) will be correct option

7 0
4 years ago
Shao Airlines is considering two alternative planes. Plane A has an expected life of 5 years, will cost $100 million and will pr
kolezko [41]

Answer:

1. If this is accepted the value of the company will increase by $27.0084 million.

2. The equivalent annual annuity for each plane:

Plane A = $2.973 million

Plane B = $4.586 million

Explanation:

1. Let's calculate Net Present Value (NPV) for Plane A:

Initial investment = $100 million

Annual cash flows = $30 million per year

Cost of capital = 11%

n = 5 years

NPV = (Annual cash flows × PVIFA (Cost of capital, n) - Initial investment

where PVIFa is Present Value Interest Factor

NPV = (30 million ×PVIFA (11%, 5) - 100 million

NPV = (30 million × 3.659) - 100 million

NPV = $10.877 million

Let's calculate Net Present Value (NPV) for Plane B:

Initial investment = $132 million

Annual cash flows = $27 million per year

Cost of capital = 11%

n = 10 years

NPV = (Annual cash flows × PVIFA (Cost of capital, n) - Initial investment

where PVIFa is Present Value Interest Factor

NPV = ($27 million ×PVIFA (11%, 10) - $132 million

NPV = ($27 million × 5.8892) - $132 million

NPV = $27.0084 million

In conclusion, the better project is Plane B as it has a higher net present value. If this is accepted the value of the company will increase by $27.0084 million.

2. equivalent annual annuity = NPV/ Present Value Annuity Factor

For Plane A:

equivalent annual annuity = NPV/ Present Value Annuity Factor ( 11%, 5)

equivalent annual annuity =  $10.877 million/ 3.659

equivalent annual annuity = $2.973 million

The equivalent annual annuity for plane A is $2.973 million

For Plane B:

equivalent annual annuity = NPV/ Present Value Annuity Factor ( 11%, 10)

equivalent annual annuity =  $27.0084 million/5.8892

equivalent annual annuity = $4.586 million

The equivalent annual annuity for plane B is $4.586 million

8 0
3 years ago
The following data are given for Harry Company:
katrin [286]

Answer:

$7,732 unfavorable

Explanation:

The computation of the direct labor rate variance is shown below:

Direct labor rate variance = Actual time taken × (Standard rate - actual rate)

= 5,021 labor hours × ($14.71 - $81,591 ÷ 5,021 labor hours)

= 5,021 labor hours × ($14.71 - $16.25)

= $7,732 unfavorable

Since the actual rate is more than the standard rate so it would be lead to unfavorable variance

This is the answer but the same is not provided in the given options

4 0
4 years ago
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