1answer.
Ask question
Login Signup
Ask question
All categories
  • English
  • Mathematics
  • Social Studies
  • Business
  • History
  • Health
  • Geography
  • Biology
  • Physics
  • Chemistry
  • Computers and Technology
  • Arts
  • World Languages
  • Spanish
  • French
  • German
  • Advanced Placement (AP)
  • SAT
  • Medicine
  • Law
  • Engineering
Flura [38]
4 years ago
7

Ancient Rome and modern-day U.S were/are both republics. What does that mean?

History
2 answers:
Mnenie [13.5K]4 years ago
7 0

The answer is option A, They both operate under a government where the citizens elect representatives to serve as government officials.

klemol [59]4 years ago
6 0

They both operate under a government where a small group of individuals make all of the decisions.

You might be interested in
What were the reasons the Vietnam War started?
Keith_Richards [23]

China had become communist in 1949 and communists were in control of North Vietnam. The USA was afraid that communism would spread to South Vietnam and then the rest of Asia. It decided to send money, supplies and military advisers to help the South Vietnamese Government.

8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
What does the census that the U.S. Government does every ten years have to do with
kotykmax [81]

Answer:

The census shows the population of each state, which the House of Representatives is based on. This means that the census data controls how many members of the House of Representatives there are. The speaker of the house's job is to keep the House in order, and to assign committee memberships and chairmanships.

8 0
3 years ago
Ancient Rome in 20 minutes fqcs
erastovalidia [21]
I don’t understand this question but I try help, The Roman Empire is often considered as one of the greatest Empires this world has ever seen.
7 0
2 years ago
What was life like on the home front during the American Revolution?
mylen [45]

Answer:

Poor people often lived in one room homes. Wealthier people would live in two story houses which typically had four rooms downstairs and two upstairs. Many homes had the kitchen in a separate building in order to try and prevent the spread of fires. Homes during colonial times didn't have running water or electricity.

Explanation:

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
100 POINTS (if u dont actually do it the points will be taken back)
vladimir2022 [97]

Answer:

The United States of America in the 1800’s was a rapidly growing country. Many people moved west for religious freedom while others were strong believers in Manifest Destiny. In order to occupy land, settlers had to find land that wasn’t already occupied. Since most of the west was a part of Mexico, this was not easy to do. Luckily, Mexicans also wanted settlers in their western lands because that area was not developed. Mexico invited Americans to settle in their land. However, both countries had many differences. It did not take long before the United States and Mexico went to war. The United States was justified in going to war because Mexico had shed American blood on American soil, Texas (a land that many Mexicans still considered theirs) was an independent republic and had the right to govern itself, and Texas was trying to become part of the United States, which means that the United States had a right to be involved, too.

Mexico had encouraged Americans to settle in the province of Texas, which was part of Mexico at the time. After the Texans and Mexicans fought, Texas won its independence from Mexico in 1836. Now, in 1846, America sent a troop of men lead by General Zachary Taylor to the Texan border to make sure the Mexicans weren’t attempting to attack Texas. This angered the Mexicans since it made it seem like Texas was now allied with America. The dispute that followed led to the death of sixteen Americans. Also, the Mexicans chose to believe that the arrival of General Zachary Taylor was an outright attack, which lead to the battles of Palo Alto and Resaca de la Palma.  This shows that Mexico had taken the first step of fighting the United States. Eventually, the Mexicans were forced to surrender. As to which side fired first, this cannot be determined. In one letter to Congress, James Polk stated, “We have tried every effort at reconciliation. The cup of forbearance had been exhausted even before the recent information from the frontier of the Del Norte. But now, …Mexico has passed the boundary of the United States, has invaded our territory and shed American blood upon the American soil”.

Before Texas became part of the United States, it was an independent republic. An independent republic has the right to govern itself and set itself apart from other nations. Texas regarded the "Rio del Norte" to be the Texan border. This means that Texas now has the choice to do whatever they wish. Charles Sumner, a state legislator from Massachusetts, said, “…in seeking extension of slavery, (our own citizens denied) the great truths of American freedom” . If Texas is independent, it has the right to own slaves. Also, states in the United States already owned slaves, so the point cannot be argued any further. Sumner also said Americans brought slaves in Mexico in defiance of Mexican law. However, Mexico invited Americans into Mexico and Mexico should have realized that Americans would have different ways. Also, Texas was trying to become part of the United States, which meant that the United States had a right to go to war with Mexico.

Since Mexico could not govern all of its territory, they invited Americans in. Now that Americans were settling in unpopulated Mexican territory, the ratio of Americans to Mexicans increased. Eventually, the American lifestyle took over, and demanded different rights. Velasco-Marquez said the treaty signed between Texas and the U.S. and also the fact that Texas wanted to be annexed to the U.S. was an act of war. Texas had the right to be a part of the U.S., and if Mexico considered this an act of war with Texas, then the U.S. had the right to be involved too . Finally, James Polk said, “The invasion was threatened solely because Texas had determined…to annex herself to our Union” . If that is true, then America did have the right to declare war.

Once Mexico showed aggression to Texas, the United States had a right to go to war with Mexico because Texas was an independent republic and wanted to be annexed into the United States. Whatever Texas does, Mexico cannot have a stake in it. From these points, it can be concluded that the United States was justified in going to war with Mexico.

Explanation:

4 0
3 years ago
Other questions:
  • Drag and drop to sort each description as describing the Magyars, Muslim armies, or Vikings.
    14·2 answers
  • When the thirteenth amendment abolished involuntary servitude, it became illegal to
    5·1 answer
  • How did the Communists take power in China?
    13·1 answer
  • The most significant result of the Third Seminole War was that
    11·2 answers
  • 13)  The election of 1896 resulted in a victory for McKinley and the __________________ party which represented big business, hi
    7·1 answer
  • PLEASE HELP 15 pts
    6·2 answers
  • Should we protest against the Pledge of Allegiance for saying "under god"? Should we use the saying america is a free country fo
    7·1 answer
  • Do you agree that “fate is stronger than any mans mind?
    10·2 answers
  • Why didn't Eastern Europe experience the Middle Ages
    6·1 answer
  • Why was it important to the framers of the Constitution to include minority rights in the Constitution?
    9·1 answer
Add answer
Login
Not registered? Fast signup
Signup
Login Signup
Ask question!