Yes, It is possible for the opportunity cost of an input to be very low or zero if there is no alternative use for it. It means that the statement is true.
The opportunity cost of an input is zero if it has no alternative use. This is so because the cost of alternatives refers to the value of the next best option. Since there isn't an alternative available in the scenario described, the opportunity cost is zero.
The opportunity cost of a certain activity option is defined as the loss of value or benefit that would result from engaging in that activity (the cost) as opposed to engaging in an alternative activity that offers a higher return in value or benefit in microeconomic theory.
To learn more about opportunity cost here
brainly.com/question/24319061
#SPJ4
well just to let you know ''HINT'' OPEC is oil.
Answer:
Sales tax would be an example of a regressive tax because people with higher incomes will spend more on things such as food and clothing causing them to pay more in sales tax than someone with a lower income who will spend less on clothing and food.
Explanation:
Answer: upward straight line
Explanation: u would need to draw the plot to see for sure but I’m pretty sure it’s that