The law of cosines reduces to the Pythagorean theorem whenever the triangle is acute. true or false
2 answers:
Answer:
The given statement is False.
Step-by-step explanation:
Let us suppose a triangle ABC.
The law of cosine is given by
And the Pythagorean theorem is given by
Now, in order to the law of cosine to be in the form of Pythagorean theorem, we must have 2abcos C =0.
a and b can't be zero since it represent the sides of the triangle. Hence, we have
cos C= 0
thus, the value of C is 90 degrees. Hence, the triangle must be a right angle triangle.
Thus, the triangle shouldn't be acute triangle.
Therefore, the given statement is false/
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<em>Complete Question:</em>
<em>Alicia is writing the program for a video game. For one part of the game she uses the rule (x,y)->(x-3,y+4) to move points on the screen. </em>
<em>A) what output does the rule give when the input is (-6,0)? </em>
<em>B)What output does the rule give when the input is (3,-4)? </em>
<em>C) Is the rule a function? Explain why it is or why it is not </em>
Answer:
a. The output is (-9,4)
b. The output is (0,0)
c. See Explanation
Step-by-step explanation:
Given
Rule: (x,y)->(x - 3, y + 4)
Solving (a):
Inputs:
The outputs is as follows;
Hence:
The output is (-9,4)
Solving (b):
Inputs:
The outputs is as follows;
Hence:
The output is (0,0)
Solving (c):
The function is a rule and the rule is that:
It shifts the graph left by 3 units and up by 4 units