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MAVERICK [17]
3 years ago
5

Kurt needs pounds of chocolate chips to make cookies. How many ounces of chocolate chips does he need? PLEASE I NEED IT RIGHT AW

AYYY
Mathematics
1 answer:
Bad White [126]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Multiply the number of pounds by 16.

1 LB=16OZ

16x(lbs)= ANSWER

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Edmundo used a number line to show the solution for the inequality |2x-6|<4 Which number line shows the solution? HURRY PLEAS
Law Incorporation [45]
Break into 2 equatins to get x's:

2x-6<4 and 2x-6>-4

Solve for x in both:

2x-6<4
2x<10
x<5

2x-6>-4
2x>2
x>1

Graph both inequalities on the same number line:

<---0-----1-----2-----3-----4-----5-----6--->
6 0
3 years ago
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The cost C (in dollars) to participate in a ski club is given by the literal equation C=85x+60, where X=C/85-12/17 is the number
dybincka [34]

Given:

The cost C (in dollars) to participate in a ski club is given by,

\begin{gathered} C=85x+60 \\ (or) \\ x=\frac{C}{85}-\frac{12}{17} \end{gathered}

Where x is the number of ski trips we take.

To find:

The number of ski trips when a total cost of $315 and $485 is spent.

Explanation:

Substituting C = 315 in the given equation we get,

\begin{gathered} x=\frac{315}{85}-\frac{12}{17} \\ x=\frac{315-60}{85} \\ x=\frac{255}{85} \\ x=3\text{ ski trips} \end{gathered}

Substituting C = 485 in the given equation we get,

\begin{gathered} x=\frac{485}{85}-\frac{12}{17} \\ x=\frac{485-60}{85} \\ x=\frac{425}{85} \\ x=5\text{ ski trips} \end{gathered}

Thus,

If we spend a total cost of $315, we can take 3 ski trips.

If we spend a total cost of $485, we can take 5 ski trips.

Final answer:

• If we spend a total cost of $315, we can take 3 ski trips.

,

• If we spend a total cost of $485, we can take 5 ski trips.

8 0
9 months ago
What is 783 divided by 18
Law Incorporation [45]
If you divide 783 by 18 you'll get 43.5
Hope this helped! (:
8 0
3 years ago
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Thirty five percent of the employees in a company have managerial positions, and 67 percent of the employees in the company have
seraphim [82]

Answer:

49% of employees who either have MBA or are managers.

Step-by-step explanation:

We are given the following information in the question:

P(Managerial) = 35% = 0.035

P(MBA) = 67% = 0.67

P(\text{Managerial} \cap \text{MBA}) = 53\% = 0.53

We have to find the probability of employees who either are have MBA or are managers.

According to De-Morgan's law:

P(\text{Managerial} \cup \text{MBA}) = P(\text{Managerial}) + P(\text{MBA}) - P(\text{Managerial} \cap \text{MBA}) \\P(\text{Managerial} \cup \text{MBA}) = 0.35 + 0.67 - 0.53 = 0.49

Thus, around 49% of employees who either have MBA or are managers.

7 0
3 years ago
Please help!!! I am stressed so much!!
Gala2k [10]

Answer:

You have to simplify the fraction and turn it into a decimal.

Step-by-step explanation:

Meaning: Make the fraction smaller and turn it into the correct decimal.

EXAMPLE:

2/4 simplified is 1/2

1/2 is equal to 0.50

4 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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