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aivan3 [116]
4 years ago
8

An attempt to explain that vertical integration is more efficient than contracting for goods and services in the marketplace whe

n the transaction costs of buying goods on the open market becomes too great has been proposed by _________.
A) population theory.
B) institution theory.
C) freakonomics.
D) transaction cost economics.
E) transaction growth theory.
Business
1 answer:
Paul [167]4 years ago
5 0

Answer:

E) transaction growth theory.

Explanation:

  • The theory incorporates vertical attempts to integrate and is more an efficient than contracting for the goods and the services in the market place and when there transaction costs of buying the goods from the open market when the market becomes too great.
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Each of the following represents a good habit if you’re trying to prevent ID theft EXCEPT…
Eddi Din [679]

Answer:

The correct answer is letter "C": Using one very secure password for all of your major financial accounts.

Explanation:

Using one password -r<em>egardless of how secure it could be</em>- for all the different accounts an individual might have increases the chances that in front of identity theft, the attacker will get the most of the individual's financial assets. <em>It is recommended to have different passcodes with different accounts and avoid using personal information within the passwords.</em>

5 0
3 years ago
Sheridan Company sells merchandise on account for $6400 to Carla Vista Company with credit terms of 2/10, n/30. Block Company re
Aliun [14]

Answer: $4,508

Explanation:

Companies usually give discounts with credit terms to encourage Receivables to pay faster.

In this scenario, credit terms of 2/10, n/30 were offered which means that if Carla Vista Company pays within 10 days they get a discount of 2% but if they don't they should pay the full amount in 30 days.

They paid within the discount period meaning that they qualify for the discount of 2% but they however returned goods worth $1800.

So calculating for that would be,

= (6,400 - 1800) (1 - 0.02)

= $4,508

The amount of the check is $4,508

8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
A newspaper featuring a section on world news( essay) HELP PLZZZZZZZZ
ivolga24 [154]
You can do about the schools having flees and how they are moving to to alot of different schools and busses and how the bugs are getting bigger if it's base on the news
4 0
3 years ago
Innovative Tech Inc (ITI) uses the percentage of credit sales method to estimate bad debts each month and then uses the aging me
Nutka1998 [239]

Answer:

The answer is given below;                                            

Explanation:

1. $100,000*.5%=$500

Bad Debt Expense Dr.$500

Allowance for Bad Debt Cr.$500

2. 1-30 days   $75,000*10%=7,500

   31-90 days  $10,000*20%=2,000

   More than 90 days $4,000*40%=1,600

Total Allowance for Doubtful Accounts-Closing=$11,100

3.  Adjusting entry for December 31,2013

Opening Balance      ($1,600)

Closing balance         $11,100

Allowance for the year $9,500

Bad Debt Expense Dr.$9,500

Account Receivable  Cr.$9,500

4. Allowance for Doubtful Accounts  $11,100

8 0
4 years ago
PackMan Corporation has semiannual bonds outstanding with nine years to maturity and the bonds are currently priced at $754.08.
EleoNora [17]

Answer:

8.23%

Explanation:

Since this bond pays semi-annual coupons, it means that the payments occur every 6 months; making it 2 periods per year. Using a Financial calculator; enter the following inputs. If using TI BA II plus, key in the number first, then the function.

Total duration; N = 9*2 = 18

Face Value ; FV = 1,000 (use 1,000 if the value is not given)

Present value or price ; PV = -754.08

Semiannual Coupon Payment; PMT = Semiannual coupon rate *Face value

Semiannual Coupon Payment; PMT = (7.25%/2) *1000 = 36.25

The Yield to maturity;YTM is the <em>annual</em> pretax I/Y which is the Pretax cost of debt in this case

therefore, CPT I/Y = 5.875% (note: semi-annual rate)

Next, convert the semiannual rate to annual rate i.e the YTM;

= 5.875%*2

Pretax cost of debt (YTM) = 11.75%

Aftertax cost of debt = Pretax cost of debt (1-tax)

= 0.1175% (1-0.30)

= 0.08225 or 8.23%

8 0
4 years ago
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