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s2008m [1.1K]
3 years ago
11

What is the correct answer to this mathematical problem?

Mathematics
1 answer:
PtichkaEL [24]3 years ago
8 0
2x^2-17x-38÷(2x+3)

if u divide it u will get x+7 with 17 remainder
You might be interested in
Y ≥ 12x – 1<br> y &lt; 43x – 2
kondaur [170]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

The solution to this problem is a graph.

Graph y ≥ 12x - 1:  this is a straight solid line with slope 12 and y-intercept -1.  Due to the presence of the  ≥  operator, we must shade (darken) the entire area above this line.  

Next, graph y < 43x – 2 using a dashed line (due to the < operator):  The slope is 43 and the y-intercept is -2.

Determine where the two lines intersect, either from the graph or algebraically.  If algebraically:

equate the two givens:

y = 12x - 1 = y = 43x – 2, which simplifies first to:

12x - 1 = 43x - 2, and second to

1 = 43x - 12x = 31x, which results in x = 1/31.

Substituting 1/31 for x in the first equation, we get:

y = 12(1/31) - 1, or y = 12/31 - 1, or y = 12/31 - 31/31, or y = 19/31

The two graphs intersect at (1/31, 19/31)

Shade (darken) the area beneath (under) the dashed line y < 43x – 2.

The solution is the area that you have darkened twice.

5 0
3 years ago
What is the area of the figure below?<br> 3 5/6in 6in
atroni [7]

Answer:

120

Step-by-step explanation:

5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Area
pentagon [3]

Step-by-step explanation:

1. In PQN & SRT.

a. <RST=<QPN (corresponding angle PQllSR)

b. <STR = <PNQ (corresponding angle TRIINQ)

c. TR=QN (Since TN & QN are opp. Side of parallelogram QNTR)

d. .°.PQN~=SRT.

2.PQN=PSOQ+SNO (whole part axiom)

3.SRT = SNO + NTRO(same as above)

4. PQN=SRT (From st. 1d)

or, PS0Q+SNO =SNO + NTRO (Cancellation of SNO)

or, PS0Q=NTRO

or, PSOQ +QOR=NTRO +QOR (Adding QOR on both side)

or, .°.◼️PQRS = ◼️QRTN

Best of luck!!!!.

8 0
4 years ago
Write 1 390 000 in standard form.
Hitman42 [59]
1.39x10^6 is the answer
4 0
3 years ago
Help please I ain't very good at math​
ruslelena [56]

the idea of showing that multiplying by 1 is true because as long as A and B follow the same ratio pattern (ie. 1n:2n is the same as 2n:4n) the statement will always be true

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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