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sukhopar [10]
3 years ago
15

1. Which of the following led to the start of the Crusades?

History
1 answer:
Darina [25.2K]3 years ago
3 0
Yes. sojsnejdj jdmmwlwosoaoonfnx
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How did the Cold War influence former colonies as they gained their independence?
Savatey [412]

Answer:

The Cold War and decolonization were also linked by the actions of the two superpowers. The US proclaimed that it supported democracy and free markets. The Soviet Union promised to liberate workers from the shackles of capitalist, imperial rule.

Explanation:

After World War II, European countries lacked the wealth and political support necessary to suppress far-away revolts. They could not oppose the new superpowers the U.S. and the Soviet Union's stands against colonialism. Strong independence movements in colonies. The European powers were determined to preserve colonial rule, and a long source of profit and national pride led to decolonization after World War II. The Cold War influence the process because the United States and the Soviet Union struggled to exert influence in the former colonies, and economic growth. Cold War helped facilitate European decolonization and affected some specific processes of decolonization. United States Marshall Plan helped western European states with post-WWII economic reconstruction, thereby relieving them of the need to hold on to their colonies. One of the most important effects of decolonization is the instability of the post-colonial political systems, which entails another, far-reaching consequences. These include deep economic problems, inhibiting growth and widening disparities between the northern and southern part of the globe.

8 0
3 years ago
The Capetians improved 29 government. Please select the best answer from the choices provided T F
tankabanditka [31]
Yes, it is generally true that the<span> Capetians improved government, since they were the most active in the Crusades, which helped the state gain far more wealth. </span>
7 0
3 years ago
Explain the role of Otto von Bismarck played in he unification of Germany
beks73 [17]

The man who did most to unite the German states was Otto Von Bismarck. He was the Prussian Chancellor and his main goal was to strengthen even further the position of Prussia in Europe. His primary aims were to:

unify the north German states under Prussian control

weaken Prussia's main rival, Austria, by removing it from the Bund

make Berlin the centre of German affairs - not Vienna

strengthen the position of the King of Prussia, William I, to counter the demands for reform from the Liberals in the Prussian parliament (the Reichstag).

It is important to note that there is much debate about Bismarck's aims to unify all German states under Prussian rule. Some historians argue that Bismarck only intended to unify the north German states but the strength of nationalist feelings after 1866 led to German unification under its own steam. According to this opinion, Bismarck actually reacted to political changes in other German states and capitalised on it rather than pursuing a master plan from the beginning to control all German states.


Army reforms

Bismarck wanted to build up Prussia's army in case his unification plans led to war. To do this he needed money. The Prussian parliament refused to allow money to be raised for Bismarck's military reforms.


Bismarck ignored the Reichstag and simply collected the money for army reforms through general taxation. He never bothered to obtain permission from the Reichstag.


Congress of Princes 1863

To counter Prussia's growing influence, Austria tried to strengthen its position in the Bund. Since it was in theory the leading member of the Bund, an increase in the power of the Bund would strengthen Austria.


Bismarck thwarted Austria's plans by insisting on popular elections to the Diet (the Bund's parliament). Austria refused and neither its or Bismarck's reforms happened.

Bismarck had successfully ruined Austria's plans and was seen, ironically, as a defender of the Liberal nationalists.


5 0
3 years ago
What was a result of universal white male suffrage
vredina [299]
A form of voting rights, in which all adult males within political systems are allowed to vote
8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
A government is laissez-faire when it
s344n2d4d5 [400]

<u>Original Question</u>: A government is laissez-faire when it?

<u>Answer: does not interfere with business affairs and does not regulate its actions</u>

<u></u>

<em>Explanation: Laissez-faire is an economic term that economists use when describing an unregulated market</em>

<em>An unregulated market in being the fact that the government doesn't involve us in the business world.</em>

<em>Its benefit is that allows for substantial growth in the industry as businesses are not bound by rules and regulations could increase the cost and decrease their efficiency.</em>

<em>However it is unbeneficial when businesses began to set up 'monoplies' and 'set inadequate working standards' that harm other businesses and workers. That is when the government would step in to regulate the market and break the laissez-faire terms on how to run a market.</em>

<em />

Hope that helps!

#LearnwithBrainly

5 0
2 years ago
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