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igor_vitrenko [27]
3 years ago
11

For a profit-maximizing monopoly that charges the same price to all consumers, what is the relationship between price P, margina

l revenue MR and marginal cost MC?
Business
1 answer:
Tema [17]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

The relationship between price, marginal revenue, and marginal cost for the scenario in the question = P > MR and MR = MC

This is because the marginal revenue of Monopoly firms is lesser than the price at all times.

Thus, a fall in price would mean that some revenue is forgone

For profit maximization, the marginal revenue is always equal to the marginal cost. Hence the reason for the expression above.

Explanation:

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Diners are served in a process with two resources. The first resource has a capacity of 1.1 diners per hour. The capacity of the
Firdavs [7]

The cycle time of this process for the firm is 2.89.

<h3>What is a Cycle Time?</h3>

This refers to the average time between the start of production of one unit and the start of production of the next unit of production

Cycle Time = Net time available to work / Customer demand

Cycle Time = 1.1 + 1.5 / 0.9

Cycle Time = 2.88888888889

Cycle Time = 2.89.

Therefore, the cycle time of this process for the firm is 2.89.

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3 0
2 years ago
Quip Corporation wants to purchase a new machine for $300,000. Management predicts that the machine will produce sales of $200,0
butalik [34]

Answer:

net present value NPV = $79800

so correct option is D) $79,800

Explanation:

solution

we knw that Net Present value = PV of cash inflow - PV of cash outflow    ............1

so here PV of cash outflow = $300000  

and Net sales = $200000

expenses = $80000

Depreciation =  \frac{300000-50000}{5}

Depreciation =  $50000

so Net income before taxes  = Net sales - Depreciation - expenses

Net income before taxes =  $200000  - $80000 - $50000

Net income before taxes =  $70000

and Tax expenses @ 40% = $28000

so

Net income = Net income before taxes - Tax expenses

Net income = $70000  - $28000

Net income = $42000

and

Depreciation = $50000

Net cash inflow =  Net income + Depreciation

Net cash inflow =  $42000  + $50000

Net cash inflow = $92000

and

PVIFA @ 10% 5 years = $3.7908

so

PV of cash inflow = $348755

PV of salvage value = $50000 ×0.6209

PV of salvage value = $31045

and

so here  Total PV of total cash inflow = $379800

and

net present value  NPV =  Total PV of total cash inflow - PV of cash outflow

net present value NPV = $379800 - $300000

net present value NPV = $79800

so correct option is D) $79,800

7 0
4 years ago
The type of account and normal balance of unearned consulting fees is revenue, credit liability, credit liability, debit expense
alexdok [17]
The unearned consulting revenues are liabilities. A liability, in accounting terms, is an obligation and is found in the balance sheets of companies or businesses. When a company does transactions with other individuals or companies usually they owe amounts to creditors for the goods or services the company acquires. In another sense, a liability is a source of the company’s assets. They can also be considered as claims against the company’s assets. A liability may also include those amounts received by the company in advance of future services. Liabilities include accounts payable, notes payable, salaries payable, interest payable, bonds payable, accrued expenses payable, etc. Their normal balance is credit.
3 0
4 years ago
Should a firm shut down if its weekly revenue is ​$1 comma 000​, its variable cost is ​$600​, and its fixed cost is ​$800​, of w
kifflom [539]

Answer: The correct answer is "C. produce because revenue of ​$1 comma 000 is greater than fixed costs.".

Explanation: The firm should produce because the revenue of 1000 is enough to cover the fixed costs and part of the variables (1000 - 800 - 600 = (-400)) so that the loss is less than if it stopped producing despite the avoidable costs (800 - 350 = 450) since if it stopped producing it would have a loss of $ 450 and producing it would have a loss of $ 400.

7 0
4 years ago
The First Bank of Flagstaff has issued perpetual preferred stock with a $100 par value. The bank pays a quarterly dividend of $1
Olegator [25]

Answer:

$56.89

Explanation:

The computation of the current price of this preferred stock is shown below:

= Annual dividend ÷ required rate of return

where,

Annual dividend equal to

= Quarterly dividend × number of quarters in a year

= $1.65 × 4 quarters

= $6.6

And, the required rate of return is 11.6%

Now put these values to the above formula  

So, the price would equal to

= $6.6 ÷ 11.6%

= $56.89

5 0
4 years ago
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