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MatroZZZ [7]
3 years ago
7

What was one of the lessons from this activity?

Business
1 answer:
Sladkaya [172]3 years ago
4 0

Answer:

I should pay off my smallest balance first. Then continue paying my smallest balances until I have paid all of my debt.

Explanation:

This is one of the lesson from the activity. That, loans and debts are important part of life of someone but the most important thing, is to remember to clear off those loans and debts. this could be done through the gradual payment till all the debts are cleared.

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Atlas Company provided the following information for last year: Operating income $ 92,000 Sales 235,000 Beginning operating asse
STALIN [3.7K]

Answer: 0.22

Explanation: Return on total assets is calculated by dividing net income or operating income from average total assets. It is a profitability ratio which is used by analysts to evaluate the ability of the firm to generate revenue from the given level of assets it have.

=\:\frac{operating\:income}{Average\:total\:assets}

where,

Average\:total\:assets=\frac{410,000+\:440,000}{2}

= $425,000

Now,putting the values into equation :-

=\:\frac{92,000}{425,000}

= 0.22

8 0
2 years ago
The cost, in dollars, to produce x designer dog leashes is C ( x ) = 8 x + 3 , and the price-demand function, in dollars per lea
steposvetlana [31]

Answer:

<em><u>P (x)   = 80x - 2x^2 - 3</u></em>

Explanation:

The Profit function is the revenue minus the cost.

Revenue = Price x Quantity =  X.px = x(88-2x) = 88x - 2x^2

Therefore the profit function P (x):  

P (x)  =  88x - 2x^2 - (8x+3)

<em><u>P (x)   = 80x - 2x^2 - 3</u></em>

<em><u /></em>

To maximise profit we use the 1st order condition: dP(x)/dq = 0

Therefore,  80 - 4x = 0

4x = 80

x = 20

So 20 leashes maximises profit.

P(x) = 80(20) - 2(20)^2 - 3

<em><u> P = $803  </u></em>

<em><u /></em>

The price to charge would be:

<u><em>p (x) = 88 - 2(20) = $48</em></u>

<u><em>The best reason would be that the price is a bit expensive for a leash so most people would not buy it.</em></u>

6 0
3 years ago
(Prob. 5.32) The industrial engineering department for Invade Air Fresheners has found that a new packing machine should save $4
cluponka [151]

Answer:

It will be willing to pay up to $297,853.46

Explanation:

First, we calculate  present value of the cash saving

C \times \frac{1-(1+r)^{-time} }{rate} = PV\\

C 45000

time 8

rate 0.05

45000 \times \frac{1-(1+0.05)^{-8} }{0.05} = PV\\

PV $290,844.57

Then, the present Value of the salvage value

\frac{Salvage}{(1 + rate)^{time} } = PV  

Maturity   7.50 %

time   8.00

rate   0.05

\frac{7.5}{(1 + 0.05)^{8} } = PV  

PV   5.08 %

This is calculate as a percent, because we are not given with a cash value.

Last, the 12,000 major overhaul

\frac{Overhaul}{(1 + rate)^{time} } = PV  

Maturity   -12,000.00

time   8.00

rate   0.05

\frac{12000}{(1 + 0.05)^{8} } = PV  

PV   -8,122.07

This PV is negative as it is a cash out-flow

Lastly, we add them all:

290,844.57 + 0.0508PV - 8,122.07 = PV

<u>And solve for PV</u>

290,844.57 - 8,122.07 = PV - 0.0508PV

282,722.5‬ = 0.9492PV

282,722.5/0.9492 = PV

PV = 297,853.455541 = 297,853.46

3 0
3 years ago
Manufacturer A has a profit margin of 2.0%, an asset turnover of 1.7 and an equity multiplier of 4.9. Manufacturer B has a profi
maksim [4K]

Answer:

1.54

Explanation:

As we know that

The DuPont Analysis is

ROE = Profit margin × Total assets turnover × Equity multiplier

So we considered this formula for Manufacturer A and Manufactured B

Profit margin × Total assets turnover × Equity multiplier =  Profit margin × Total assets turnover × Equity multiplier

2.0% × 1.7 × 4.9 = 2.3% × Asset turnover × 4.7

16.66% = 10.81% × Asset turnover

So, the asset turnover is 1.54

We equate this formula for both Manufactured A and manufactured B

6 0
3 years ago
January​ 1, Biden,​ Inc.'s WorkminusinminusProcess Inventory account had a balance of $ 30 comma 800. During the​ year, $ 58 com
Natasha_Volkova [10]

Answer:

Option (A) is correct.

Explanation:

Given that,

Direct materials = $58,500

Direct labor = $66,000

Manufacturing overhead = 120% of direct labor cost

Opening WIP = $30,800

Cost of goods manufactured:

= Direct materials + Direct labor + Manufacturing overhead

= $58,500 + $66,000 + 120% of direct labor cost

= $58,500 + $66,000 + (120% × $66,000)

= $58,500 + $66,000 + $79,200

= $203,700

December 31 balance of Work-in-Process ​Inventory:

= Opening WIP + cost of goods manufactured - cost of goods completed

= $30,800 + $203,700 - $220,700

= $13,800

6 0
3 years ago
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