Answer:
The correct answer is inject cash into it.
Explanation:
Every day, central banks lend money to private banks through auctions. The extraordinary thing about these new liquidity injections starring the European Central Bank or the US Federal Reserve is not so much the operation itself, as the situation in which they occur.
In this case, problems arise when, due to distrust, banks do not lend money to each other, operations that are common when the system is working properly.
With extraordinary placements, the central entities replace that lack of funds that private banks have not been able to obtain from their partners and, at the same time, at a cheaper price - at a lower interest rate.
The break-even point in units using the mathematical equation is 2,000 in units and the unit contribution margin is 80 per unit.
<h3>Break even points in units</h3>
a. Break-even point in unit
Using this formula
Break-even point in unit=Fixed cost/(Selling price-Variable cost)
TC = FC + VC
Sales - TC = Net Income
Sales - TC = 0
Sales - FC - VC = 0
2500(Q)-160,000-170(Q) = 0
80(Q)-160,000 = 0
80(Q)=160,000
Q=160,000/80
Q=2,000 break-even in units
b. Unit contribution margin
Unit contribution margin = Selling price- Variable cost
Unit contribution margin= $250 - $170
Unit contribution margin =$80 per unit
Inconclusion the break-even point in units using the mathematical equation is 2,000 in units and the unit contribution margin is 80 per unit.
Learn more about break-even point here:brainly.com/question/9212451
Answer:
The correct answer is the option A: failure to complete a business plan and failure to get funding.
Explanation:
To begin with, if an entrepreneur failures to complete a business plan and to get funding then the most probable thing to happen is that his business will be untenable from the beginning due to the fact that if the person do not possesses money and a plan to put his ideas in action he will never achieve his primary goals, that is, obtaining profits at long term. Therefore that if there is no business plan in which the company must focus and there is no money to carry out that strategy then the business model is doomed.
Answer:
Do = $2.00
D1= Do(1+g)1 = $2(1+0.1)1 = $2.20
D2= Do(1+g)2 = $2(1+0.1)2 = $2.42
PHASE 1
V1 = D1/1+ke + D2/(1+ke)2
V1 = 2.20/(1+0.11) + 2.42/(1+0.11)2
V1 = $1.9820 + $1.9641
V1 = $3.9461
PHASE 2
V2 = DN(1+g)/ (Ke-g )(1+k e)n V2 = $2.42(1+0.03)/(0.11-0.03)(1+0.11)2
V2 = $2.4926/$0.0649
V2 = $38.4068
The current stock price is calculated as follows:
Po = V1 + V2
Po = $3.9461 + $38.4068
Po = $42.35
Explanation: This question relates to valuation of shares with 2-phase growth model. The value of shares in the first phase will be determined by discounting the dividend for the 2 years by cost of equity. The dividends for year 1 and year 2 were obtained by subjecting the current dividend paid (Do) to growth rate.
Moreso, the value of shares for the second phase was calculated by considering the last dividend paid(D2) and then subject it to the new growth rate. The adjusted dividend was then capitalized at the appropriate discount rate of the company.
