Jefferson wrote all men are equal which meant that people were born with some inalienable rights like right to live free without being under the control of others.
Although in reality, Thomas Jefferson had many slaves under his control and he had progeny from one of his slaves. That statement proclaimed that every individual has to be included regardless of race, religion or gender.
But when he wrote ‘All men are equal”, he may have not considered women and slaves. It may sound hypocritical but it has taken more than a century to really internalize the meaning of equality.
I would say <span>B) Great Britain
Hope this help.Thank You!</span>
The First president of the U.S.A is George Washington
in what aspect? it depends on what you are talking about
