I'm pretty sure it was to get revenge on the Persians for their attack on the Greek people
Answer:
:)
Explanation:
Since a president will only be impeached if they do something unconstitutional, I believe that impeachment of a president would be justified according to the constitution. Andrew Johnson was the first president to be impeached, along with Bill Clinton and Richard Nixon. The reason why he was impeached was that he violated the Tenure of Office Act and tried to replace secretary of war Edwin Stanton with Major Lorenzo Thomas. The Tenure of Office act was designed specifically to protect the secretary of war, and by Johnson removing Stanton from office, that completely violated the law, and congress felt it was best to impeach Johnson since his actions were unconstitutional.
One major difference was A: The Byzantine government clearly placed the emperor as the highest religious authority, while the Roman government kept political and religious authority more separate.
<h3>How did the Byzantines differ from the western Romans?</h3>
The Western Romans had the Pope as the head of the church and the emperor as the head of the empire thereby keeping both offices separate.
The Byzantines on the other hand, had their emperor as both the head of the empire, and the head of the church.
Find out more on the Byzantine empire at brainly.com/question/1446842
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The French and American Revolutions were similar in that they bought sought to free a general populous from what was determined to be a corrupt and tyrannical monarchical government, however they were different in that after the American Revolution, things were relatively peaceful, whereas after the French Revolution there was a "reign of terror" that was extraordinarily violent.
