Answer:
C) The Spearman correlation results should be reported because at least one of the variables does not meet the distribution assumption required to use Pearson correlation.
Explanation:
The following multiple choice responses are provided to complete the question:
A) The Pearson correlation results should be reported because it shows a stronger correlation with a smaller p-value (more significant).
B) The Pearson correlation results should be reported because the two variables are normally distributed.
C) The Spearman correlation results should be reported because at least one of the variables does not meet the distribution assumption required to use Pearson correlation.
D) The Spearman correlation results should be reported because the p-value is closer to 0.0556.
Further Explanation:
A count variable is discrete because it consists of non-negative integers. The number of polyps variable is therefore a count variable and will most likely not be normally distributed. Normality of variables is one of the assumptions required to use Pearson correlation, however, Spearman's correlation does not rest upon an assumption of normality. Therefore, the Spearman correlation would be more appropriate to report because at least one of the variables does not meet the distribution assumption required to use Pearson correlation.
So you do 20%*426 to get 85.2 then you would subtract 85.2 from 426 because they sold 20% more than last year. On top of that the answer isn't 355 it is 340.8.
Add all the like terms together so 4x-3x is x or 1x -3y-y is -4y 2z+3z is 5z so put them all together it's x-4y+5z
Okay. So, we should convert fractions to the least common denominator, which is 20. That would be 2 5/20 and 2 16/20. Add both of those numbers up to get 5 1/20. Taylor ran and walked 5 1/20 miles.
Answer:
(a) 0.0128 to 4 decimal places
(b) The 90% confidence interval is 119.1 < μ < 121.0 to 1 decimal places
Step-by-step explanation:
See the attached documents and graphs. Cheers!
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