Answer:
D. $0.93
Explanation:
Upmove (U) = High price/current price
= 42/40
= 1.05
Down move (D) = Low price/current price
= 37/40
= 0.925
Risk neutral probability for up move
q = (e^(risk free rate*time)-D)/(U-D)
= (e^(0.02*1)-0.925)/(1.05-0.925)
= 0.76161
Put option payoff at high price (payoff H)
= Max(Strike price-High price,0)
= Max(41-42,0)
= Max(-1,0)
= 0
Put option payoff at low price (Payoff L)
= Max(Strike price-low price,0)
= Max(41-37,0)
= Max(4,0)
= 4
Price of Put option = e^(-r*t)*(q*Payoff H+(1-q)*Payoff L)
= e^(-0.02*1)*(0.761611*0+(1-0.761611)*4)
= 0.93
Therefore, The value of each option using a one-period binomial model is 0.93
Answer:
transcripts degrees earned
listing of volunteer activities portfolio
presentation done at your last job resume
Explanation:
a transcript is earned after getting a degree
The more debt used, the greater the leverage a company employs on behalf of its owners.
<h3>
What is financial leverage?</h3>
Financial leverage exists as the usage of borrowed money (debt) to finance the purchase of assets with the anticipation that the income or capital gain from the new asset will surpass the cost of borrowing.
<h3>What is financial leverage example?</h3>
An example of financial leverage use contains utilizing debt to buy a house, borrowing money from the bank to begin a store, and bonds issued by companies.
Debt exists as an obligation that requires one party, the debtor, to pay money or other agreed-upon value to another group, the creditor. Debt stands for deferred payment, or sequence of payments, which distinguishes it from an immediate purchase.
To learn more about financial leverage refer to:
brainly.com/question/17099821
#SPJ4
