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Harlamova29_29 [7]
3 years ago
14

Investing is a game of chance. Suppose there is a 36% chance that a risky stock investment will end up in a total loss of your i

nvestment. Because the rewards are so high, you decide to invest in five independent risky stocks. Find the probability that at least one of your five investments becomes a total loss. Round to the nearest ten-thousandth when necessary.
Mathematics
1 answer:
Sergio039 [100]3 years ago
3 0

Answer: P(x ≥ 1) = 0.893

Step-by-step explanation:

We would assume a binomial distribution for the outcome of the investment. The formula is expressed as

P(x = r) = nCr × p^r × q^(n - r)

Where

x represent the number of successes.

p represents the probability of success.

q = (1 - r) represents the probability of failure.

n represents the number of trials or sample.

From the information given,

p = 36% = 36/100 = 0.36

q = 1 - p = 1 - 0.36

q = 0.64

n = 5

Therefore,

P(x ≥ 1) = 1 - P(x = 0)

P(x = 0) = 5C0 × 0.36^0 × 0.64^(5 - 0)

P(x = 0) = 1 × 1 × 0.107

P(x = 0) = 0.107

P(x ≥ 1) = 1 - 0.107 = 0.893

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What is an equation of the line that passes through the points (-3, -2)(−3,−2) and (3, 6)(3,6)? Put your answer in fully reduced
il63 [147K]

Answer:

The equation of the line is y = \frac{4}{3} x + 2

Step-by-step explanation:

The form of the equation that passes through two points (x1, y1) and (x2, y2) is y = m x + b, where

  • m is the slope of the line whose rule is m=\frac{y2-y1}{x2-x1}
  • b is the y-intercept, you can find it by substituting x, y in the equation by (x1, y1) OR (x2, y2)

Let us solve the question:

∵ The line passes through the points (-3, -2) and (3, 6)

∴ x1 = -3 and x2 = 3

∴ y1 = -2 and y2 = 6

→ Use the rule of m to find it

∵ m=\frac{6-(-2)}{3-(-3)}=\frac{6+2}{3+3}=\frac{8}{6}

→ Simplify it by dividing up and down by 2

∴ m = \frac{4}{3}

→ Substitute its value in the form of the equation above

∴ y = \frac{4}{3} x + b

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→ Substitute it in the form of the equation

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∴ The equation of the line is y = \frac{4}{3} x + 2

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