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Harlamova29_29 [7]
3 years ago
14

Investing is a game of chance. Suppose there is a 36% chance that a risky stock investment will end up in a total loss of your i

nvestment. Because the rewards are so high, you decide to invest in five independent risky stocks. Find the probability that at least one of your five investments becomes a total loss. Round to the nearest ten-thousandth when necessary.
Mathematics
1 answer:
Sergio039 [100]3 years ago
3 0

Answer: P(x ≥ 1) = 0.893

Step-by-step explanation:

We would assume a binomial distribution for the outcome of the investment. The formula is expressed as

P(x = r) = nCr × p^r × q^(n - r)

Where

x represent the number of successes.

p represents the probability of success.

q = (1 - r) represents the probability of failure.

n represents the number of trials or sample.

From the information given,

p = 36% = 36/100 = 0.36

q = 1 - p = 1 - 0.36

q = 0.64

n = 5

Therefore,

P(x ≥ 1) = 1 - P(x = 0)

P(x = 0) = 5C0 × 0.36^0 × 0.64^(5 - 0)

P(x = 0) = 1 × 1 × 0.107

P(x = 0) = 0.107

P(x ≥ 1) = 1 - 0.107 = 0.893

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