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Sergeeva-Olga [200]
3 years ago
7

When solving for a present value, all cash flows should be discounted from the A : future to the present. B : the past to the fu

ture. C : the past to the present. D : present to the future.
Business
1 answer:
Alisiya [41]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

B the past to the future

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Match the terms to their definitions.
Irina-Kira [14]

The question requires matching the terms to their definitions.

  • <u>Hiring</u> is the process of employing (someone) for wages.

  • <u>Recruitment</u> is the process of finding new people to join an organization.

  • <u>Job Description</u> informs applicants about the responsibilities and required qualification.

  • <u>Recruitment Plan</u> is the process of integrating a new employee into an organization, maps out the strategy for attracting skilled employees and obtaining applications from a diverse workforce.

  • <u>Offer</u> is a proposal put forward by an employer to a prospective employee.

  • <u>References</u> serve the purpose of gathering information about a prospective employee from previous employers.

  • <u>Types of Recruitment</u>: internal (employees within the company) and external (people outside the company).

  • <u>Compensation</u> the money the employee will receive as a salary or wages.

  • <u>Interview</u> a face to face meeting between an employer and a job applicant.

Read more:

brainly.com/question/17850173

8 0
3 years ago
In mid-2015, Qualcomm Inc. had $13 billion in debt, total equity market value of $87 billion and an equity beta of 1.41. Include
lesya692 [45]

Answer:

A) Qualcomm's enterprise value= $95 billion

B) Asset Beta of Qualcomm’s business = 1.29

C) Qualcomm's WACC= 7.931%

Explanation:

The question relates to Capital asset pricing model (CAPM) which is used to calculate the required return from an investment given the level of risk associated with the investment. Now there are many risk that the level of cash flows and hence the required return from an investment such as systematic and unsystematic risks, business and finance risks etc.

The requirements of the question are as follows:

a)What is Qualcomm’s enterprise value?

b)What is the beta of Qualcomm’s business assets?

c)What is Qualcomm’s WACC?

The first two requirements will help us compute requirement C so we begin solving it form A as follows:

A) Qualcomm's enterprise value= ve- vd +va

ve= value of equity

vd= value of debt

va= value of asset

Qualcomm's enterprise value= $87b - $13b +$21b

Qualcomm's enterprise value= $95 billion

B) Beta of Qualcomm’s business assets:

Now beta is an index used to measure systematic risks (risks posed by macro-economic factors such as tax, interest rates etc). There are two beta indexes, asset beta and equity beta. Asset beta measures business risks only and equity beta measures both business and finance risks. In the question we already have equity beta so we need to calculate asset beta in order to compute Qualomm's WACC.

ba = be× ve/enterprise value

ba = asset beta

be= equity beta

ba= 1.41× $87÷$95

Beta of Qualcomm's business= 1.29

C) Qualcomm’s WACC:

The formula is as follows:

Ke= Rf + (market premium)× ba

ke = WACC

Rf= risk free rate of interest

ba= asset beta

ke= 2.9% + (3.9% ×1.29)

ke/WACC= 7.931%

8 0
3 years ago
On January​ 1, 2018, Jordan Company acquired a machine for​ $1,090,000. The estimated useful life of the asset is five years. Re
anyanavicka [17]

Answer:

$206000.

Explanation:

Given: Asset purchase value = \$ 1090000

          Residual value after five years= \$ 60000

          Estimated useful life of asset= five years.

Now, we will calculate depreciation per year using straight line method.

Depreciation= \frac{(purchased\ value\ of\ asset - residual\ value)}{estimated\ useful\ life\ of\ asset}

⇒ Depreciation = \frac{(1090000 - 60000)}{5} = \frac{1030000}{5}

∴ Depreciation expense per year = \$ 20600

3 0
3 years ago
Why would applying to as many scholarships as possible reduce your student debt?
Anna35 [415]

Answer:

......................

7 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
On December 31, Briar Co. disposed of a piece of equipment that cost $6,000 with accumulated depreciation as of December 31 of $
Setler [38]

Briar Co. disposed of a $6,000 piece of equipment on December 31 with $4,500 in accrued depreciation as of that date. Then $1,500 will be debited from the Loss on Equipment Disposal account.

<h3>What is loss on Equipment Disposal account?</h3>

Gain/Loss on Asset Disposal is a common account name of the Equipment Disposal account.

The net difference between the initial asset cost and any cumulative depreciation (if any) is debited to the disposal account, while the balances in the fixed asset account and the accumulated depreciation are reversed.

On December 31, the debited amount is calculated as:

=\text{Disposed Equipment- Accumulated Depreciation}\\\\ =\$6,000- \$4,500\\\\ =\$1,500

Therefore, $1,500 will be the amount of loss on disposal of the Equipment.

Learn more about the depreciation, refer to:

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7 0
2 years ago
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