Originally without the 10% extra, both have 100%. since the question stated that the first salesperson have 10% more, the percentage of his paycheck will be a total of 110%. on the other hand, the second salesperson will have only 100%. the question then stated that when both oaychecks are added together, it will give a total of $1075.
110% + 100% represents $1075
210% represents $1075
so now you need to find what is 1 %
1% represents $(1075/210)
the first salesperson have 110%, so you
(1075/210) × 110% = $563. 0952381
round off to the nearest cent so it will become $563.10
the first salesperson paycheck is $563.10
the second salesperson paycheck 100%. so you....
(1075/210) × 100% = $511.9047619
=$511.90
therefore the second salesperson paycheck is $511.90.
Answer:
i think it is b(-22)
Step-by-step explanation:
i hope this helps
Answer:
The amount of white paint Jen used to paint the walls in her room is:
Step-by-step explanation:
To solve the exercise you only have to pay attention to the statement, in the section that says that 4/5 parts of the total painting is blue, therefore, if 1 is the total painting, you must do a subtraction:
Since the remaining white paint is 1/5 of the total, you have two ways to solve the exercise: multiply the total paint (8.2 pints) by 1/5 or divide the number by 5, as shown below:
- <u>Amount of white paint = 8.2 pints * (1/5) = 1.64 pints.
</u>
- <u>Amount of white paint = 8.2 pints / 5 = 1.64 pints.
</u>
As you can see, the two methods provide a <u>value of 1.64 pints, which corresponds to 1/5 of the total paint and is the amount of white paint used</u>.
<h3>
The probability of winning the lottery is 
</h3>
Step-by-step explanation:
Here, the total numbers in the jackpot = 1 to 34
Now, the number that needed to be drawn = 5
The number of ways , 5 number can be drawn from total 34 numbers :
Also, in separate draw, the correct number drawn = 1
So, the number of ways that can be done = 30 C 5 x 37
= 278,256 x 37 = 10,295,472
Now, P(win) = 
Hence, the probability of winning the lottery is
In this problem, we're going to use the 'PEMDAS' method.
First, we're doing the problem in the parenthesis.
44 - 4 = 40
Next in PEMDAS, we need to do the exponent.
6² = 6 x 6 = 36
Then we would do multiplication, but there is nothing to multiply so we move onto division.
40 / 2 = 20
Now we would add, but there is nothing to add so we move onto subtraction.
20 - 36 = -16
Our final answer would be -16.
Hope this helps!~
