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Vilka [71]
3 years ago
13

Sun Inc. assigns $6,000,000 of its accounts receivables as collateral for a $2 million 8% loan with a bank. Sun Inc. also pays a

finance fee of 1% on the transaction upfront. What would be recorded as a gain (loss) on the transfer of receivables
Business
1 answer:
meriva3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

The answer is: Assigning accounts receivables as collateral for a bank is not a asset transfer.

Explanation:

Even as the bank offers Sun Inc. with a factoring limit, the accounts receivables are still in the firm's accounting book. The firm has the obligations to go after their debtors for collections. The account receivables are transferred to creditors when a company becomes defaulted or bankrupted.

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Why teams need negotiation skills?<br>​
Vitek1552 [10]

Answer:

Negotiating a decision that the group is all happy with increases a team's cohesion and helps individual members examine their own motivations. Successful negotiation provides the team with faith in their ability to continue to co-operate with each other.

<h2>hope it helps you.</h2>
7 0
3 years ago
Willy makes proper use of the wiki feature on the company intranet when he ________. science forums
beks73 [17]

Answer:

Adds some updated features to product information, that way, he can effectively utilize the wiki feature as he so desires.

7 0
3 years ago
"Bishop, Inc., is obligated to pay its creditors $6,500 during the year. (Leave no cells blank - be certain to enter "0" whereve
RSB [31]

Answer:

Explanation:

It is given that there is a liability to creditors of 6,500

Total assets = Total liability + Shareholder's equity

a) Shareholder's equity = Total assets - Total liability = 10,250 - 6,500 = 3,750

b) Shareholder's equity = Total assets - Total liability = 5,900 - 6,500 = -600

4 0
3 years ago
Pittman Company is a small but growing manufacturer of telecommunications equipment. The company has no sales force of its own;
valentinak56 [21]

A)Degree of operating leverage=Contribution/EBIT

=6400,000/2140000=2.99.

B) Degree of operating leverage=Contribution/EBIT

=5600,000/1340000=4.18

C) Degree of operating leverage=Contribution/EBIT

=7600,000/1015000=7.49

One conclusion that companies can draw from examining operational leverage is that companies that minimize fixed costs can increase profits without changing selling prices, contribution margins, or unit sales.

The Operating Leverage formula is used to calculate a company's break-even point, helping to set a reasonable selling price that covers all costs and produces a profit. This gives you insight into how well your company is using fixed-cost items such as inventory and machinery to make a profit. The more profit a company can extract from the same amount of fixed assets, the higher its operational leverage.

Learn more about operating leverage at

brainly.com/question/24278932

#SPJ4

4 0
1 year ago
A private investment club has $300,000 earmarked for investment in stocks. To arrive at an acceptable overall level of risk, the
Alexeev081 [22]

Answer:

Investment in low risk=$150,000

Investment in medium risk =$30,000

Investment in high risk=$120,000

Explanation:

✓We can denote the investment in high risk as $x

✓ We can denote the investment medium risk as $y

✓We can denote the investment in low risk as($x + $y)

The summation of the investment = x + y +( x + y )= $300,000

If we add the like-terms together we have,

2x + 2y = $300,000

If we divide the both sides by 2, we have

x+y = 150,000

If we make "x" as subject of the formula, we have

x =150,000 -y •••••••••••eqn(**)

Total return on investments is

0.15x +0.10y +0 .06(x+y) = $30,000••••••••••••••••••••••••••••eqn(#)

Substitute for x from eqn(**) into equation (#)

0.15(150,000 -y) + 0.10y + 0.06(150,000-y +y) = 30,000

22500-0.15y+0.10y+9000= 30,000

0.05y=1500

y=1500/0.05

y=30,000

Recall, x =150,000 -y

Then

x = 150,000 - 30,000 = 120,000

y=30,000

x=120,000

Investment in low risk = x + y

= 30,000+120,000= 150,000

Hence, the investment in high risk

is $120,000, the investment medium risk is $30,000 and the investment in low risk is $ 150,000.

3 0
3 years ago
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