1answer.
Ask question
Login Signup
Ask question
All categories
  • English
  • Mathematics
  • Social Studies
  • Business
  • History
  • Health
  • Geography
  • Biology
  • Physics
  • Chemistry
  • Computers and Technology
  • Arts
  • World Languages
  • Spanish
  • French
  • German
  • Advanced Placement (AP)
  • SAT
  • Medicine
  • Law
  • Engineering
rjkz [21]
3 years ago
10

Why did Russia and Spain give up on Oregon

History
1 answer:
Tamiku [17]3 years ago
7 0

Answer: Sowwy if im wrong

Explanation:

The Russo-American Treaty of 1824 established a clear border between American and Russian lands on the West Coast as well as trade. It gave Russian claims south of parallel 54°40′ north to the US.

Russia was inclined to give away this territory, which was in dispute between them, Britain, America and Spain, to insure their undisputed and ongoing ownership over Alaska. They were in no position to enforce their claims militarily and the trade value of territories other than Alaska was limited. They decided to get the best agreement that they could to avoid conflict.

A few years later, even Alaska became difficult for them to manage, and, once again fearing losing the land without compensation to either the US or Britain, they negotiated the Alaska purchase.

You might be interested in
Why would Russia have legitimate reason to be upset with Allied strategy in the European theater?
denis-greek [22]

Answer:

the United States would concentrate the majority of its strategy to both defeat the Germans and bolster relationships among allies. By that time, however, Russian forces had already defeated the German army

Explanation:

4 0
3 years ago
Which leader was an influential Republican president during the Civil War who signed the document to end slavery in the US?
NeX [460]
It was Abraham Lincoln.
8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Enlightenment ideas included
Shkiper50 [21]

A) freedom of religion

6 0
3 years ago
What are good reasons for a married couples choosing to have a child?
AleksAgata [21]

Answer:

there is no good reason...

Explanation:

:)

4 0
2 years ago
Read 2 more answers
As a _____, Jesus Christ speaks to men for God; as a ______ He speaks to God for men.
satela [25.4K]
King, Prophet are your answers.
3 0
2 years ago
Other questions:
  • What is a central reason why McKinley won the 1896 presidential election?
    7·1 answer
  • How did alexander the great treat king darius and his family
    14·1 answer
  • Why is it important to identify the dates of artifacts?<br> (Quickly please).
    6·1 answer
  • Laws passed in the late 1990s restricted the activities of financial firms to narrowly defined services they could provide, prom
    12·1 answer
  • What innovation allowed Henry Ford to make cars available to Americans for a lower cost?
    6·1 answer
  • How did roads contribute to the empires success in rome
    6·1 answer
  • What role do single-member districts play in the local, state, and federal election processes?
    5·1 answer
  • Help plssssssssssssss
    14·1 answer
  • What was one effect of the State Colonization Law of 1825?
    15·2 answers
  • What is the correct definition of the word famine?
    8·1 answer
Add answer
Login
Not registered? Fast signup
Signup
Login Signup
Ask question!