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Zina [86]
3 years ago
5

Would -1.2 go into integers or rational numbers??

Mathematics
2 answers:
Ymorist [56]3 years ago
8 0
Nooo don't listen to the other guy! An integer is a whole number and it's opposite. -1.2 is not whole ther for it is an integer
storchak [24]3 years ago
4 0
Both. An integer is a rational number.
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Which scenario could be represented by this graph?<br> ( someone plz help )
Yanka [14]

Answer:

B

Step-by-step explanation:

Because the plane isn't gaining altitude but yet its moving at the beginning

4 0
3 years ago
Help me please 2t = 10
Black_prince [1.1K]
Divide both sides by 2

2t/2 = 10/2


t=5
8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Express as a trinomial. (3x+3)(2x−4)
Artyom0805 [142]

Use the FOIL method: First, Outside, Inside, Last

3x(2x) = 6x²

3x(-4) = -12x

3(2x) = 6x

3(-4) = -12

6x² -12x + 6x-12

Combine like terms

-12x + 6x = -6x

6x² - 6x - 12 is your answer

hope this helps

5 0
4 years ago
A real estate agent has 17 properties that she shows. She feels that there is a 60% chance of selling any one property during a
Zarrin [17]

Answer:

P(X\leq 5)

And we can find the individual probabilities like this:

P(X=0)=(17C0)(0.6)^0 (1-0.6)^{17-0}=0.000000171  

P(X=1)=(17C1)(0.6)^1 (1-0.6)^{17-1}=0.00000439  

P(X=2)=(17C2)(0.6)^2 (1-0.6)^{17-2}=0.0000526  

P(X=3)=(17C3)(0.6)^3 (1-0.6)^{17-3}=0.000394  

P(X=4)=(17C4)(0.6)^4 (1-0.6)^{17-4}=0.00207  

P(X=5)=(17C5)(0.6)^5 (1-0.6)^{17-5}=0.000807  

And adding we got:

P(X\leq 5) = 0.0106

Step-by-step explanation:

Previous concepts

A Bernoulli trial is "a random experiment with exactly two possible outcomes, "success" and "failure", in which the probability of success is the same every time the experiment is conducted". And this experiment is a particular case of the binomial experiment.

The binomial distribution is a "DISCRETE probability distribution that summarizes the probability that a value will take one of two independent values under a given set of parameters. The assumptions for the binomial distribution are that there is only one outcome for each trial, each trial has the same probability of success, and each trial is mutually exclusive, or independent of each other".

The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:  

P(X)=(nCx)(p)^x (1-p)^{n-x}  

Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:  

nCx=\frac{n!}{(n-x)! x!}  

The complement rule is a theorem that provides a connection between the probability of an event and the probability of the complement of the event. Lat A the event of interest and A' the complement. The rule is defined by: P(A)+P(A') =1

Solution to the problem

Let X the random variable of interest, on this case we know that:

X \sim Binom(n=17, p=0.6)

And we want this probability:

P(X\leq 5)

And we can find the individual probabilities like this:

P(X=0)=(17C0)(0.6)^0 (1-0.6)^{17-0}=0.000000171  

P(X=1)=(17C1)(0.6)^1 (1-0.6)^{17-1}=0.00000439  

P(X=2)=(17C2)(0.6)^2 (1-0.6)^{17-2}=0.0000526  

P(X=3)=(17C3)(0.6)^3 (1-0.6)^{17-3}=0.000394  

P(X=4)=(17C4)(0.6)^4 (1-0.6)^{17-4}=0.00207  

P(X=5)=(17C5)(0.6)^5 (1-0.6)^{17-5}=0.000807  

And adding we got:

P(X\leq 5) = 0.0106

5 0
3 years ago
Can you guys help me to find the measure of each angle tysm.
barxatty [35]

Answer:

∠EBF = 51°

∠DBE = 17°

∠ABF = 141°

∠EBA = 90°

∠DBC = 107°

∠DBF = 68°

Step-by-step explanation:

Hope this helps

7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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