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Fantom [35]
3 years ago
9

Why do women have a longer life expectancy than men?

History
1 answer:
Allushta [10]3 years ago
6 0

Women have longer life expectancy than men because it is biologically supported. <u>Firstly, women engage less in behaviors that are bad for health than men</u> such as excess smoking and drinking. In addition to that, <u>women currently better profit from advanced health care and better living conditions</u> such as regular medical check-ups.

Moreover, from the genetics perspective, when mutation occurs of one gene of the X chromosome, <u>women have another X chromosome for compensation which increases their resistance to biological aging</u>. Lastly, men participate in activities/works especially those that <u>utilize more muscles and energy that result into their worn out state faster than compared to women .</u>

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Correct answer:  D. To help former slaves make the change to freedom

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The Freedmen's Bureau was established by Congress in 1865, in the aftermath of the Civil War.  The aim of the Bureau was to provide assistance to former black slaves (as well as poor whites) in the South during the Reconstruction period.  The Freedmen’s Bureau provided food and housing, established schools, and made medical and legal assistance available.  There was an intention of settling former slaves on land confiscated or abandoned during the war, but that didn't materialize. Radical Republicans took over dominance in Congress and they determined that confiscated lands in the South should be returned to their original owners.

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3 years ago
To what extent did feudalism contribute to the french revolution
Leto [7]

I can't really answer your question (as I don't really know enough about 18th century France), but I just want to clear up an (understandable) misconception about Feudalism in your question.

The French revolution was adamant and explicit in its abolition of 'feudalism'. However, the 'feudalism' it was talking about had nothing at all to do with medieval 'feudalism' (which, of course, never existed). What the revolutionaries had in mind, in my own understanding of it, was the legally privileged position of the aristocracy/2nd estate. This type of 'feudalism' was a creation of early modern lawyers and, as a result, is better seen as a product of the early-modern monarchical nation-state, than as a precursor to it. It has nothing to do with the pre-nation-state medieval period, or with the Crusades.

Eighteenth-century buffs, feel free to chip in if I've misrepresented anything, as this is mostly coming from my readings about the historiographical development of feudalism, not any revolutionary France expertise, so I may well have misinterpreted things.

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