Option E, All the above are examples of funded retention
Explanation:
Funded retention — risk management term refers to a program in which an entity retains assets in advance, instead of distributed to the insured or another group, to pay for risks incurred by the company.
The insurance exclusion is a common example of a transfer of risk to save premiums, as a deduction is a limited risk that can save insurance premium costs for greater risks.
Based on the cost or absence of commercial insurance companies actively maintain certain risks–which is commonly known as self-insurance.
the answer is d. to meet all consumer needs!!
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Answer:
putting a halt on the layoffs
Explanation:
This strategy should begin by putting a halt on the layoffs. This should be top priority since the layoffs themselves are the main cause for the criticism that the company is receiving and this criticism is the sole reason as to why its market position and staff productivity has fallen drastically. People think the company is failing and the staff is scared that they will eventually be fired. By stopping layoffs and waiting for a market recovery you give other better options a chance to arise and more efficient strategies to take effect.
Boston, New York, Philadelphia, and Charleston were all important cities in colonial America and in the early years of U.S. History because trade was a major part of the economies of these cities because they were all ports that could ship goods on the Atlantic Ocean.
Answer:
The correct choice is C)
The most logical thing to do would be to calculate the value of the stock in 5 years time.
Explanation:
This speaks to ones understanding of dividend growth stock valuation models. These tools are used to establish a fair value for a stock by discounting the present value of its future dividends. A commonly used model is the constant growth dividend discount model.
The formula for the DDM, which assumes constant growth in dividends, is provided below.
P0 = D1/(r-g)
Where,
P0 = intrinsic value of stock
D1 = dividend payment one year from today
r = discount rate
g = growth rate
Identifying the correct answer entails establishing a timeline of the expected cash flows. We are given the following information:
t0 = $0
t1 = $0
t2 = $0
t3 = $0
t4 = $0
t5 = $0.20
t6 = $0.20 * 1.035
Given a rate of return, we could use the constant growth dividend discount model to establish the fair value of the firm at t5 (five years from today). Incidentally, to determine today's value, we'd discount it back another five years.
Based on the information above, we are able to prove that the answer is '5'.
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