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KiRa [710]
3 years ago
8

which of the following is true? A. A firm with low anticipated profit will likely take on a high level of debt. B. A successful

firm will probably take on zero debt. C. Rational firms raise debt levels when profits are expected to decline. D. Rational investors are likely to infer a higher firm value from a zero debt level. E. Investors will generally view an increase in debt as a positive sign for the firm's value.
Business
1 answer:
Oksanka [162]3 years ago
4 0

Answer: Investors will generally view an increase in debt as a positive sign for the firm's value.(E)

Explanation:

Investors will generally view an increase or rise in debt as a positive sign of the value of the firm. Rational investors are likely to invest in a higher firm value provided the firm is all-equity financed.

High-growth firms that has future positive net present value projects most times tend to have high levels of debt.

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When buyers will purchase exactly as much as sellers are willing to sell, what is the condition that has been reached?.
Vlad1618 [11]

Answer:

the condition that has been reached is market equilibrium.

5 0
2 years ago
Tomey Corporation has two production departments, Forming and Finishing. The company uses a job-order costing system and compute
Bogdan [553]

Answer:

a. $5,604

Explanation:

Forming Department overhead cost = Fixed manufacturing overhead cost + (Variable overhead cost per machine-hour × Total machine-hours in the department)

= $99,000 + ($2.10 per machine-hour × 18,000 machine-hours)

= $99,000 +$37,800 = $136,800

Predetermined overhead rate = Estimated total manufacturing overhead cost ÷ Estimated total amount of the allocation base incurred

= $136,800 ÷ 18,000 machine-hours

= $7.60 per machine-hour

Overhead applied to a particular job = Predetermined overhead rate × Amount of the allocation base incurred by the job

= $7.60 per machine-hour × 90 machine-hours

= $684

Finishing Department overhead cost = Fixed manufacturing overhead cost + (Variable overhead cost per direct labor-hour × Total direct labor-hours in the department)

= $70,400 + ($3.70 per direct labor-hour × 8,000 direct labor-hours)

= $70,400 + $29,600 = $100,000

Predetermined overhead rate = Estimated total manufacturing overhead cost ÷ Estimated total amount of the allocation base incurred

= $100,000 ÷8,000 direct labor-hours = $12.50 per direct labor-hour

Overhead applied to a particular job = Predetermined overhead rate × Amount of the allocation base incurred by the job

= $12.50 per direct labor-hour × 60 direct labor-hours

= $750

                                              Forming      Finishing       Total

Direct materials........................$940           $350           $1,290

Direct labor...............................$960           $1,920         $2,880

Manufacturing overhead.......$684           $750            $1,434

Total cost of Job T617........................................................$5,604

4 0
3 years ago
Which of the following can be part of analyzing a problem?
PIT_PIT [208]

Answer:

gathering and examining p... info....

3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
APV and WACC are similar in that they reflect the tax benefit of Blank______. Multiple choice question. leverage relocation equi
bixtya [17]

APV and WACC are similar in that they reflect the tax benefit of leverage.

<h3>How to illustrate the information?</h3>

It should be noted that the adjusted present value (APV) is used to value a project.

The weighted cost of capital (WACC) implies the rate at which a company is expected to pay all its security holders in order to finance its assets.

In conclusion, APV and WACC are similar in that they reflect the tax benefit of leverage.

<u>Complete question:</u>

APV and WACC are similar in that they reflect the tax benefit of ...........

a. leverage

b. relocation

c. equity

d. waiting

Learn more about WACC on:

brainly.com/question/25566972

#SPJ1

3 0
2 years ago
Assume that a​ firm's marginal cost is​ $10 and the elasticity of demand is minus2. We can conclude that the​ firm's profit-maxi
inysia [295]

Answer:

Option A. $20

Explanation:

Marginal cost be MC, marginal revenue be MR and . We know that

MR = ∆TR ÷ ∆Q

or

MR = (P∆Q+Q∆P) ÷ ∆Q

Here,

P is Profit-maximizing price

or

MR = (P∆Q ÷ ∆Q) + (Q∆P ÷ ∆Q)

or

MR = P + (Q∆P ÷ ∆Q)

we can also write the above equation as

MR = P + P(\frac{Q}{P})(\frac{\Delta P}{\Delta Q})

also,

Price elasticity of demand PED =  (\frac{Q}{P})(\frac{\Delta P}{\Delta Q})

or

MR = P + [ P ÷ (PED) ]

We know MR = MC

Therefore,

MC = P +  [ P ÷ (PED) ]

(P − MC) ÷ P = −1 ÷ PED

Substituting the values provided in the question

MC = $10

PED = -2

we get

P = [ PED ÷ (1 + PED)] × MC

P = ( -2 ÷ -1) × 10

or

P =$20

hence,

Option A. $20

7 0
3 years ago
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