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algol13
3 years ago
6

Solve the system of equations by graphing

B2%7Dx%2B2%20%7D%20%5Catop%20%7By%3D3x-7%7D%7D%20%5Cright." id="TexFormula1" title=" \left \{ {{y=- \frac{3}{2}x+2 } \atop {y=3x-7}} \right." alt=" \left \{ {{y=- \frac{3}{2}x+2 } \atop {y=3x-7}} \right." align="absmiddle" class="latex-formula"> *Show all work
Mathematics
1 answer:
gregori [183]3 years ago
5 0
1) Graph of y = - (3/2)x + 2

That is a straightline with slope -3/2 and y-intercept  2

If you do not know how to graph it, you can make a table like this:

x             y = (-3/2)x + 2

-1            3/2 + 2 = 7/2

0              0 + 2 = 2

2              - 3 + 2 = -1

4              - 6 + 2 = - 4

2) Graph of y = 3x - 7

That is a straight line with slope 3 and y intercept  -7

If you do not know how to graph it you can make a table like this:

x         y = 3x - 7

-1         - 3 - 7 = - 10

0          0 - 7 = - 7

1          3 - 7 = - 4

2          6 - 7 = - 1

3         9 - 7 = 2

3) When you draw the two lines you will see that the intersect at x = 2, with the correspondant y = - 1.

That point of intercection is the solutions of the system (2, -1)
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The Center for Medicare and Medical Services reported that there were 295,000 appeals for hospitalization and other Part A Medic
Ymorist [56]

Answer:

(a) 0.00605

(b) 0.0403

(c) 0.9536

(d) 0.98809

Step-by-step explanation:

We are given that 40% of first-round appeals were successful (The Wall Street Journal, October 22, 2012) and suppose ten first-round appeals have just been received by a Medicare appeals office.

This situation can be represented through Binomial distribution as;

P(X=r)= \binom{n}{r}p^{r}(1-p)^{n-r} ; x = 0,1,2,3,....

where,  n = number of trials (samples) taken = 10

            r = number of success

            p = probability of success which in our question is % of first-round

                   appeals that were successful, i.e.; 40%

So, here X ~ Binom(n=10,p=0.40)

(a) Probability that none of the appeals will be successful = P(X = 0)

     P(X = 0) = \binom{10}{0}0.40^{0}(1-0.40)^{10-0}

                   = 1*0.6^{10} = 0.00605

(b) Probability that exactly one of the appeals will be successful = P(X = 1)

     P(X = 1) = \binom{10}{1}0.40^{1}(1-0.40)^{10-1}

                  = 10*0.4^{1} *0.6^{10-1} = 0.0403

(c) Probability that at least two of the appeals will be successful = P(X>=2)

    P(X >= 2) = 1 - P(X = 0) - P(X = 1)

                     = 1 - \binom{10}{0}0.40^{0}(1-0.40)^{10-0} - \binom{10}{1}0.40^{1}(1-0.40)^{10-1}

                     = 1 - 0.00605 - 0.0403 = 0.9536

(d) Probability that more than half of the appeals will be successful =             P(X > 0.5)

  For this probability we will convert our distribution into normal such that;

   X ~ N(\mu = n*p=4,\sigma^{2}= n*p*q = 2.4)

  and standard normal z has distribution as;

      Z = \frac{X-\mu}{\sigma} ~ N(0,1)

  P(X > 0.5) = P( \frac{X-\mu}{\sigma} > \frac{0.5-4}{\sqrt{2.4} } ) = P(Z > -2.26) = P(Z < 2.26) = 0.98809

3 0
3 years ago
Help for final I’d appreciate it!
mihalych1998 [28]

Answer:

y=76 degree(being vertically opposite angle)

y+x=180 degree(being linear pair)

76+x=180

x=180-76

x=104 degree

x=z(being vertically opposite angle)

104=z

therefore z=104 ,y=76,x=104

Step-by-step explanation:

7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Please help -6(-5)+12
madreJ [45]
<span>-6(-5)+12
Multiply -6 by -5.
Note: Whenever you multiply or divide a negative number by another negative number, it automatically becomes a positive number.
30+12
Add
Final Answer: 42</span>
4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
How do you solve this?
trapecia [35]

Answer: 140^3

Step-by-step explanation:

The 3 is an exponent. To solve this, you basiclly have to multiply the three numbers and add a 3 exponent.

3 0
3 years ago
Solve 2√3costheta=3​
DENIUS [597]

Answer:

pi/6, 11pi/6

Step-by-step explanation:

so first we divide both sides by 2root 3

we then get cos theta = 3/2root3

do some rationalizing, it turns to cos theta = root 3/2

from here we take the cosine inverse of root3/2 to get our basic angle (pi/6)

from here we want where cos theta is positive, using the CAST circle or ASTC circle, from top right to bottom right, we find that cos theta is positive at theta, 2pi - theta

Now you haven't given a domain, so ill assume [0,2pi]

which means you have cos theta = theta, 2pi - theta

therefore = pi/6, 2pi - pi/6

which simplifies to = pi/6, 11pi/6

7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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