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VLD [36.1K]
4 years ago
7

Year to year rightward shifts in​ long-run aggregate supply leads to A. a​ long-run trend path for real GDP. B. decreases in the

production possibilities curve. C. inflation. D. shifts in aggregate demand.
Business
1 answer:
Lilit [14]4 years ago
6 0

Answer:

The correct answer is A. a​ long-run trend path for real GDP

Explanation:

Let us first observe the point where the aggregate supply is equal to the aggregate demand, that is, the equilibrium point. We can find this point in the following diagram; It is where the aggregate supply curve, OA, and the aggregate demand curve, DA, intersect, showing real equilibrium GDP and the equilibrium price level in the economy.

When production has a relatively low price level, companies have little incentive to produce, although consumers may be willing to buy a high quantity. As the price level of the goods and services produced increases, the aggregate supply increases and the aggregate demand decreases until reaching the equilibrium point.

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If Schrumpf LLC, a semiweekly depositor, is required to deposit $3,090 of 941 taxes, what is the maximum amount of their shortfa
SSSSS [86.1K]

Answer:

this question is so very hard

6 0
3 years ago
Tharaldson Corporation makes a product with the following standard costs: Standard Quantity or Hours Standard Price or Rate Stan
nexus9112 [7]

Answer:

Variable overhead rate variance  $1,050  unfavorable

Explanation:

<em>Variable overhead rate variance is the difference between the standard variable overhead cost allowed for the actual hours worked  and the actual variable overhead incurred for the period</em>

                                                                                             $

470 hours should have cost (470× $ 5.00)                       2,350          

but did cost                                                                        <u> 3,400 </u>      

Variable overhead rate variance                                    <u> 1050  un</u>favorable

       Variable overhead rate variance  $1,050  unfavorable                

8 0
3 years ago
Indiana Co. began a construction project in 2016 with a contract price of $150 million to be received when the project is comple
notka56 [123]

Answer:

The correct option is C. Recognize $9 million Gross Profit in 2016.

Explanation:

IFRS-15 states that a 4-step approach should be followed when the performance obligation is satisfied over a period of Time. In-this case, the performance obligation will be satisfied within three years from 2016 to 2018.

4-step Approach:

1) First of all you have to calculate the over gain/loss of the project, and the result will decide the entries to be made. In this case, the contract price is $150m and the total costs (Costs incurred + Expected Costs) are $120m. This gives us a Profit of $30m.

2) In the second step, we have to determine the progress of the contract, It means that how much work have we done so far. There are two methods to calculate the progress: Input Method and the Output Method. Based on the data available, we will go for Input Method. To calculate progress under this method, simply divide the costs incurred by the total costs and multiply the result with 100 to get the percentage. 30% is the progress of the contract.

3) Revenue (150 * 30%) = $45m

   COS (120 * 30%)        = $36m

   Gross Profit                = $9m

* 120 is the Total Cost.

4) The last step involves determining Contract Assets and Liabilities. I won't go in to the detail because this step is not concerned with your question. You are open to ask questions regarding this step if you need.

Thanks.

8 0
3 years ago
If your firm buys $1,000 worth of supplies on credit with terms 3/15 n60 and pays the bill on the 60thday after the purchase:
Agata [3.3K]

Answer:

Nominal Cost of Trade Credit = 25.09%

Exact Cost of Trade Credit  = 28.03%

Explanation:

given data

buys worth =  $1,000

terms = 3/15 n60

pays the bill = 60th day

to find out

Nominal Cost of Trade Credit and Exact Cost of Trade Credit

solution

we know here Discount % and time 60 day and discount period that is

Discount % = 3%

time for Payment = 60 days

and Discount Period = 15 days

so Nominal Cost of Trade Credit will be as

Nominal Cost of Trade Credit = Discount % ÷ (100 - Discount % ) × [ 365 ÷ (time for Payment - Discount Period) ]    ..................1

put here value we get

Nominal Cost of Trade Credit = \frac{0.03}{1-0.03} × \frac{365}{60-15}

Nominal Cost of Trade Credit = 25.09%

and

Exact Cost of Trade Credit will be here as

Exact Cost of Trade Credit = (1+Discount % ÷ (100%-Discount %))^(365/(time for Payment - Discount Period) - 1    ..................2

put here value we get

Exact Cost of Trade Credit  = (\frac{1+0.03}{1-0.03})^{\frac{365}{60-15}} - 1

Exact Cost of Trade Credit  = 28.03%

5 0
3 years ago
A house is closed on October 15. The annual insurance payment is $578 for the fiscal year of July 1 to June 30. The buyers will
Brums [2.3K]

Answer:

$313

Explanation:

In order to divide the insurance bill between the seller and the buyer, we must first determine the insurance cost per month. We first divide the total premium by 12 months = $578 / 12 = $48.17 per month.

The seller is responsible for paying insurance during June, July, August, September and half of October (15 days). So the seller's share of the bill = 5.5 months x $48.17 = $264.92 ≈ $265

So the buyer owes the seller the difference between the total premium paid and $265 = $578 - $265 = $313

5 0
3 years ago
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