All categories

4 years ago

if you have 1,000,000,000 dollars and you want to split between 10 friends how much will they get each

Mathematics

2 answers:

Lena [83]4 years ago

6 0

Answer:

$100,000,000

Step-by-step explanation:

divide 1,000,000,000 by 10, be sure to count your zeros.

guapka [62]4 years ago

5 0

Answer:

Each friend would get 100000000

Step-by-step explanation:

1000000000 ÷ 10 = 100000000

You might be interested in

Plz help me with this final!!!

Stells [14]

Answer:

Please check the explanation.

Step-by-step explanation:

Given

The location of Point A on the number line = -13.4

The location of Point B on the number line = 14

The location of Point C on the number line = 19.9

The location of Point C on the number line = 19.9

Thus, the distance or length between B and C can be calculated by subtracting the point B units from point C units.

BC = 19.9 - 14

= 5.9 units

Therefore,

BC = 5.9 units

Also, the distance or length between C and A can be calculated by subtracting the point C units from point A units.

CA = -13.4-19.9

= -33.3 units

Therefore,

CA = -33.3 units

As the length or distance can not be negative, hence

CA = 33.3 units

8 0

3 years ago

A survey found that 31% of all teens buy soda (pop) at least once each week. Seven teens are randomly selected. The random varia

kumpel [21]

Answer:

The value of n is 7.

Step-by-step explanation:

For each teen, there are only two possible outcomes. Either they buy soda at least once each week, or they do not. Since they were selected randomly, the teens are independent of each other, which means that we use the binomial probability distribution to solve this question.

Binomial probability distribution

The binomial probability is the probability of exactly x successes on n repeated trials, and X can only have two outcomes.

$P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}$

In which $C_{n,x}$ is the number of different combinations of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.

$C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}$

And p is the probability of X happening.

In the binomial distribution, we have that n is the size of the sample. In this question, seven teens are randomly selected, which means that the value of n is 7.

7 0

3 years ago

Taylor has $32000 a part of which he invested at 5% and the remainder at 3%. His annual return on each investment is the same. A

ki77a [65]

Taylor have to invest the total money at 3.75%

Step-by-step explanation:

Let the part of money invested at 5% be 'a' and the part of money invested at 3% be (32000-a).

To find (a) :

The annual income for both the 5% and 3% investment is equal.

Interest= (amount x rate of interest x time) /100

Interest for 5% rate on investment

Interest = (a x 5 x 1) /100

Interest for 3% rate on investment

Interest = [(32000-a) x 3 x 1]/100

Both the interests are equal so equate both the equations.

(a x 5 x 1) /100 = [(32000-a) x 3 x 1] /100

5a = (32000-a) 3

5a = 96000-3a

8a = 96000

a = 96000/8

a = 12000

32000-a = 32000-12000

= 20000

The amount invested at 5% is $12000 and invested $20000 at 3%

Interest = (12000 x 5 x 1) /100

= 60000/100

= $600

Interest = (20000 x 3 x 1) /100

= 60000/100

= $600

Total interest = $1200

To find the rate at which the total money is to be invested to get the same annual income.

1200 = (32000 x rate x 1) /100

1200 x 100 = 32000 x rate x 1

120000 = 32000 x rate

120000/32000 = rate

Rate = 3.75%

Taylor have to invest the total money at 3.75% to get the same annual income

4 0

3 years ago

Simplify:<br>3х + 5y-x+ 2y <br>&<br>3g + 5h +4g - 2h

vladimir1956 [14]

♥️♥️♥️♥️♥️♥️♥️♥️♥️♥️♥️♥️♥️♥️

$3x + 5y - x + 2y =$

$3x - x + 5y + 2y =$

$(3 - 1)x + (5 + 2)y =$

$2x + 7y$

_________________________________

$3g + 5h + 4g - 2h =$

$3g + 4g + 5h - 2h =$

$(3 + 4)g + (5 - 2)h =$

$7g + 3h$

♥️♥️♥️♥️♥️♥️♥️♥️♥️♥️♥️♥️♥️♥️

8 0

3 years ago

Given: ABCD is a ∥-gram, BF ⊥ CD , BE ⊥ AD, Prove: △ABE∼△CBF

drek231 [11]

Answer:

Hence proved △ABE∼△CBF.

Step-by-step explanation:

Given,

ABCD is a parallelogram.

BF ⊥ CD and

BE ⊥ AD

To Prove : △ABE∼△CBF

We have drawn the diagram for your reference.

Proof:

Since ABCD is a parallelogram,

So according to the property of parallelogram opposite angles are equal in measure.

$\therefore m\angle A = m\angle B$ ⇒1

And given that BF ⊥ CD and BE ⊥ AD.

So we can say that;

$m\angle F=m\angle E=90\°$ ⇒2

Now In △ABE and △CBF

∠A = ∠C (from 1)

∠E = ∠F (from 2)

So by A.A. similarity postulate;

△ABE∼△CBF

7 0

3 years ago