Answer: $10.49
Explanation:
Net Asset Value is the equity of the portfolio divided by the number of shares outstanding.
Equity = Assets - Liabilities
So,
Net Asset Value = (Assets - Liabilities) / No. of shares outstanding
Assets = (200,000 * 35) + (300,000 * 40) + (400,000 * 20) + (600,000 * 25)
= $42,000,000
Liabilities will be the accrued management fee.
Net Asset Value = (42,000,000 - 30,000) / 4,000,000
= 10.4925
= $10.49
Answer:
The answer is below;
Explanation:
b. Allowance for Doubtful Accounts Dr.$4,000
Bad Debts Cr.$4,000
c. Bad Debt Expense Dr.$5,000
Account Receivable Cr.$5,000
d. 1)Account Receivable Dr.$5,000
Bad Debt Expense Cr.$5,000
2)Cash Dr.$5,000
Account Receivable Cr.$,5000
Answer:
36.84 years and 31.82 years
Explanation:
In this question ,we applied the rule no 70 which means we get to know the estimated number of years for doubling the real GDP
In the first case, the estimated number of years
= 70 ÷ average annual growth rate
= 70 ÷ 1.9%
= 36.84 years
In the second case, the estimated number of years
= 70 ÷ average annual growth rate
= 70 ÷ 2.2%
= 31.82 years
Answer:
payback 5 years
if the ltaer years cash flow increases several times, it would not affect the payback date. This is a disavantage of this method, it is focus on recover the investment without considering the total cash flow of the project.
Explanation:
Payback = the time in the life of a project on which the initial ivnestment is recover.
-31,000 Balance
Year 1 2,000 - 29,000
Year 2 0 - 29,000
Year 3 8,000 - 21,000
Year 4 9,000 - 12,000
Year 5 12,000 0
At year 5 the proejct achieve payback
Answer:
Opportunity cost
Explanation:
The theory of comparative advantage represent that if there is any benefit from the international trade so it does not only show the absolute advantage at lesser cost but it also represent the comparative advantage and generating at a lesser opportunity cost as the theory of comparative advantage says that the product and services should be produced at lower opportunity cost
