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3 years ago

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A particular advertisement for a men's cologne was found to be more effective as a magazine ad than as a TV commercial when it w

as exposed to a group of 10 people. This phenomenon is explained by:

1 answer:

olya-2409 [2.1K]3 years ago

5 0

Answer:

The vehicle option source effect

Explanation:

This reffers to the point that humans, depending on their context, look at ads differently.

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Financial statement data at December 31 for Ecco Company are shown below. Cost of merchandise sold $552,500 Inventories: Beginni

Lostsunrise [7]

Answer:

Inventory turnover= 3.25

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

Cost of merchandise sold $552,500

Inventories:

Beginning of year 200,000

End of year 140,000

<u>To calculate the inventory turnover, we need to use the following formula:</u>

Inventory turnover= Cost of goods sold/ average inventory

Average inventory= (beginning inventory + ending inventory) / 2

Average inventory= (200,000 + 140,000)/2= 170,000

Inventory turnover= 552,500/170,000

Inventory turnover= 3.25

3 0

3 years ago

In a CVP income statement, cost of goods sold is generally:

Nadya [2.5K]

Answer:

d) partly a variable cost and partly a fixed cost.

Explanation:

CVP income statement is also known as cost volume profit income statement, it is generally a product of CVP analysis and it include five elements:

Price of products.
Volume of activity.
Variable cost per unit.
Total fixed cost.
Mix of product sold.

CVP analysis are conducted to know how changes in cost and volume would impact company´s operating income and net income. It require all the cost of company should be segregated into variable and fixed cost. It also calculate contribution margin, which help to identify the profit of company before deducting fixed cost.

3 0

3 years ago

At December 31, 2019, Sharon Lee Corporation reported current assets of $343,980 and current liabilities of $196,600. The follow

gtnhenbr [62]

Answer:

1.97 times

Explanation:

The formula to compute the current ratio is shown below:

Current ratio = Total Current assets ÷ total current liabilities

Current ratio before any adjustment is shown below:

So, current ratio = $343,980 ÷ 196,600 = 1.75 times

Current ratio after adjustments are shown below:

Current assets = Before adjustment balance + goods purchased costing - physical count of inventory + freight-in charges

= $343,980 + $20,440 - 11,890 + 3,040

= $355,570

Current liabilities = Before adjustment balance - goods not received

= $196,600 - $15,950

= $180,650

So, the current ratio would be

= $355,570 ÷ $180,650

= 1.97 times

3 0

4 years ago

The Quorum Company has a prospective 6-year project that requires initial fixed assets costing $962,000, annual fixed costs of $

diamong [38]

Answer:

5375

Explanation:

Given that:

Initial Fixed assets costing = $962000

Annual fixed costs = $403400

Variable cost per unit = $123.60

Sales price per unit = $249.00

Discount rate = 14%

Tax rate = 21%

The contribution per unit = Sales price - Variable cost

= $(249.00 - 123.60)

= $125.40

The present value break-even point(BEP) is the region of sales level where the net present value (NPV) equals zero.

Assuming that the sales level = p

i.e.

NPV = PV(of inflows - of outflows)

Inflows = (p * contribution per unit - annual fixed cost)( 1- tax rate) + depreciation * tax rate

= (p * 125.4 - 403400) ( 1 - 0.21) + depreciation * tax rate

where;

depreciation = initial fixed assest cost/ lifetime of the project

= (125.4p - 403400)*0.79 + (962000/6)*0.21

= (125.4p - 403400)*0.79 + (160333.33)*0.21

= (125.4p - 403400)*0.79 + 33670

Now, the PV of the inflows =PV factor(6 years, 14%) * inflows

$= inflows * \dfrac{( 1-(1.14)^{-6})}{0.14}$

$= inflows * 3.8887$

Replacing the value for inflows, we have:

$=((125.4p - 403400)*0.79 + 33670)* 3.8887$

The PV of the outflows = Initial Fixed asset cost = $962000

∴

Equating both together using:

PV(of inflows - of outflows) = 0

((125.4p - 403400)*0.79 + 33670)* 3.8887 - 962000 = 0

((125.4p - 403400)*0.79 + 33670)* 3.8887 = 962000

(99.066p - 318686 + 33670) * 3.8887 = 962000

(99.066p - 285016) * 3.8887 = 962000

385.24p - 1108341.72 = 962000

385.24p= 962000 + 1108341.72

385.24p= 2070341.72

p = 2070341.72 / 385.24

p ≅ 5375

6 0

3 years ago

If a buyer has a critical or more important use of the product then the inelasticity of the demand increases. what factor is aff

Ghella [55]

If a buyer has a critical or more important use of the product then the inelasticity of the demand increases, then it is the importance of the product affecting elasticity.

A product is considered inelastic if its demand remains static even if there is a significant price change. It is generally the basic necessity product that are considered as inelastic product. Inelastic demand of the product ensures the adequate supply of goods. In inelastic demand case the quantity demanded is same despite the change in price and the demand curve is graphed out as a vertical line. These goods have no substitutes ensuring the quantity demanded remains unaffected.

In case of fall in the price, the demand remains same, generating less revenue. On the other hand, if price hikes, the business earns significant profit.

To learn more about inelastic demand click here:

brainly.com/question/13572905

#SPJ4

3 0

1 year ago