Get trolled beatch lolllllllllllllllllllllllll
I think D: Northern legislatures had already passed the Emancipation Proclamation is your best bet. Lincoln didn't have the right to give the executive order in the states that had congressional representation which was strictly the Union . However, in the rebellious states (the south) he was able to impose his authority over them because they were technically looked at as having committed treason against the Union. Does that make sense?
Hopefully this helped and good luck.
Answer:
Explanation:
they are all Muslim country, and they where ruled by the Ottoman empire
A, because he wanted to better the economy after the great depression
