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Inga [223]
2 years ago
10

When language is nonliteral A. The author is being as clear as possible. B. It means exactly what it says. C. The reader must us

e inference skills to determine its meaning. D. Double meanings aren't allowed.
English
1 answer:
xxTIMURxx [149]2 years ago
6 0

The Answer is C.

This is why. The word 'literal' can be defined simply as "face value". For example if some one says I literally haven't slept all night. You would see that this means they have not slept at all.

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explaining what has caused the English spoken today to be different from the English spoken in earlier centuries.
devlian [24]
I would say because people separated from their kind and leading to speaking different. just like how people pick up accents when they go to the UK or other foreign countries. 
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3 0
2 years ago
Help needed ASAP will give BRAINLIEST
Paladinen [302]

Answer:

C

Explanation:

It makes the most sense

7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Which best explains why the author uses the word “flanked” to describe the layout of cottages in the novel’s setting? to help th
tiny-mole [99]

The answer is to help the reader visualize a house bordered by smaller cottages

<em>He was spending his summer vacation, as he always did, with his mother at Grand Isle. In former times, before Robert could remember, "the house" had been a summer luxury of the Lebruns. Now, flanked by its dozen or more cottages, which were always filled with exclusive visitors from the "Quartier Français," it enabled Madame Lebrun to maintain the easy and comfortable existence which appeared to be her birthright.</em>

The author uses the word <u>flanked</u> meaning, according to Cambridge<em> "to be at the side of someone or something"</em> to let the reader imagine a large, luxurious and expensive house surrounded by small cottages but equally important since they were exclusive to the inhabitants of the French quarter.

If my answer helped you please give me 5 stars and better answer. Thank you.

3 0
3 years ago
Running out of gas, the car came to a stop is what italicized phrase
adell [148]
The first one, Gerund. 
8 0
3 years ago
In the previous at Romeo and Juliet help falling in love even though their families despise one another based on the expert what
Dmitry_Shevchenko [17]

Answer:

Based on the excerpt, the two main purposes of this prologue are:

* It creates an ominous mood that hints at the conflicts of the play.

* It recaps past events that happened in the play or offstage.

Explanation:

The question is not complete since it does not provide the prologue to refer to the answer, here is the prologue:

Read the prologue for act II of William Shakespeare's play Romeo and Juliet:

CHORUS: Now old desire doth in his death-bed lie,

And young affection gapes to be his heir;

That fair for which love groan'd for and would die,

With tender Juliet match'd, is now not fair.

Now Romeo is beloved and loves again,

Alike betwitched by the charm of looks,

But to his foe supposed he must complain,

And she steal love's sweet bait from fearful hooks:

Being held a foe, he may not have access

To breathe such vows as lovers use to swear;

And she as much in love, her means much less

To meet her new-beloved any where:

But passion lends them power, time means, to meet

Tempering extremities with extreme sweet.

The prologue gives the audience the idea of something dark coming in the future but it does not foreshadow what exactly will happen to the characters, it also talks about how they just fell in love which is an event in the past, and how because of their families' past they can not be together, it gives the audience a reference to what is to come and where is it coming from.

8 0
2 years ago
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