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34kurt
3 years ago
15

Why do you think Macbeth avoids using the words “murder,” “kill,” etc? What does this tell you about Macbeth’s state of mind at

this stage of the play?
English
1 answer:
Margarita [4]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

Most likely to give the audience or viewer the feeling of the intentions of Macbeth without indiscriminately saying it out loud.

Explanation:

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nadya68 [22]

After reading both excerpts from the novel "Strange Case of Dr. Jekyll and Mr. Hyde," we can say that Dr. Jekyll, in excerpt 2, is:

B. Concerned.

<h3>What is said in excerpt 2?</h3>
  • In the second excerpt, Dr. Jekyll expresses his concerns over the fact that his alter-ego, Mr. Hyde, seems to be incorporating his normal self.
  • Mr. Hyde represents the repressed side of Dr. Jekyll, his flaws and impulses. Jekyll fears that his normal self might disappear, and only Mr. Hyde will remain.

The two excerpts are the following:

Excerpt 1:

I had but to drink the cup, to doff at once the body of the noted professor, and to assume, like a thick cloak, that of Edward Hyde. I smiled at the notion;  it seemed to me at the time to be humourous; and I made my preparations with the most studious care.

Excerpt 2:

Now, however, and in the light of that morning's accident, I was led to remark that whereas, in the beginning, the difficulty had been to throw off the body of Jekyll, it had of late gradually but decidedly transferred itself to the other side. All things therefore seemed to point to this; that I was slowly losing hold of my original and better self, and becoming slowly incorporated with my second and worse.

Learn more about "Strange Case of Dr. Jekyll and Mr. Hyde" here:

brainly.com/question/12701725

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