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Andru [333]
3 years ago
11

At the end of last year, the company's assets totaled $877,000 and its liabilities totaled $748,500. During the current year, th

e company's total assets increased by $59,700 and its total liabilities increased by $24,850. At the end of the current year, stockholders' equity was:
Business
1 answer:
sergey [27]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

The options are:

A $34,850.

B $163,350.

C $128,500.

D $188,200.

$ 163,350.00,option B is correct

Explanation:

At the beginning of the current year ,the stockholders equity is the difference between total assets of $877,000 and total liabilities of $748,500 i.e $128,500 .

However,the increase or decrease to stockholders' equity in the current year is the difference between increase in total assets of $59,700 and the the increase in liabilities of $24,850 i.e $ 34,850.00  

Hence stockholders' equity=the initial stockholders' equity+increase=$128,500+$ 34,850=$ 163,350.00  

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An entrepreneur founded his company using $200,000 of his own money, issuing himself 200,000 shares of stock. An angel investor
nikitadnepr [17]

Answer:

the post money valuation of the company is $1,750,000

Explanation:

The computation of the post money valuation is shown below:

Given that

Value of 400,000 shares is  $1 million.

So,

The Value of 1 share is

= $1 million ÷ 400,000

= $2.5

And,  

Total number of shares is

= 400,000 + 200,000 + 100,000

= 700,000

Now  

Total value of shares is

= $2.5 × 700,000

= $1,750,000

hence, the post money valuation of the company is $1,750,000

6 0
2 years ago
Santa Corporation issued a bond on January 1 of this year with a face value of $1,000. The bond's coupon rate is 6 percent and i
Marianna [84]

Answer:

Santa Corporation

a. The bond's issue price = $901 (PV of all cash inflows).

b. The bond sold at a DISCOUNT.  The discount was $99 (equal to total amortization).

c. Bonds payable at the end of:

Year 1 = $931

Year 2 = $964

Explanation:

a) Data and Calculations:

Face value of bond = $1,000

Coupon rate = 6%

Interest payment = Annually on December 31

Bond's maturity period = 3 years

Annual market rate of interest = 10%

N (# of periods)  3

I/Y (Interest per year)  10

PMT (Periodic Payment)  60

FV (Future Value)  1000

Results

PV = $900.53 = $901

Sum of all periodic payments $180.00

Total Interest $279.47

Schedule

Date                           Cash Paid   Interest Expense  Amortization  Balance

January 1, Year 1                                                                                 $901

December 31, Year 1     $60                     $90                $30              931

December 31, Year 2      60                        93                  33             964

December 31, Year 3      60                        96                  36          1,000

5 0
3 years ago
Data-driven decision management is usually undertaken as a way to gain a competitive advantage. A study from the MIT Center for
Ganezh [65]

Answer:

  • 4%
  • 6%

Explanation:

Professors Andrew McAfee and Erik Brynjolfsson of the MIT Sloan School of Management performed a study that proved that corporations that used data driven decision management had a higher productivity (+4%) and higher profits (+6%). This study was made by the two professors and the MIT Center for Digital Business.

They were very clear in specifying that the success of data driven management is based upon the quality of the data gathered and the effectiveness of its interpretation. Not all data gathered is useful for every corporation, so it must be properly analyzed and interpreted.

5 0
3 years ago
Bruce & Co. expects its EBIT to be $185,000 every year forever. The firm can borrow at 9 percent. Bruce currently has no deb
ivolga24 [154]

Answer:

$751,562.50 and $837,203.125

Explanation:

The formula to compute the value of the firm under the MM proposition approach is shown below:

In first case

= {EBIT × ( 1 - tax rate)} ÷ WACC

= {$185,000 × ( 1 - 0.35)} ÷ 16%

= $120,250 ÷ 16%

= $751,562.50

Since no debt is there which means the firm is unlevered firm and computation is done accordingly.

All other information which is given is not relevant. Hence, ignored it

In second case

= {EBT× ( 1 - tax rate)} ÷ WACC

= {$172,850 × ( 1 - 0.35)} ÷ 16%

= $112,352.50 ÷ 16%

= $702,203.125

EBT = $185,000 - $135,000 × 9%

       = $185,000 - $12,150

       = $172,850

So, the value of firm would be

= $702,203.125 + $135,000

= $837,203.125

5 0
3 years ago
LO 4.5Why are the overhead costs first accumulated in the manufacturing overhead account instead of in the work in process inven
vivado [14]

Answer  Explanation:

For the manufacturing overhead occurs during the manufacturing process but unlike wages, the actual values are unknow thus, we cannot anticipate in a guarantee amount. Hence, the cost accounting works as follows:

It will stablish a predetermined overhead rate which will be charged against WIP based on another factor which can be measure (like working hours, machine hours, among others)

Then, during the period as the actual cost occurs they will be charged into manufacturing overhead account.

At the end of the period, we will be able to determinate the actual cost and adjust COGS, WIP and FINISHED GOOD if needed to represent the actual cost of the inventory produced.

3 0
3 years ago
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