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bulgar [2K]
3 years ago
6

Jones Company has the following liabilities at the end of the current year:

Business
1 answer:
makkiz [27]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

The amount of long-term liabilities to be reported on the Balance Sheet at the end of the current year is $70.000

Explanation:

<u>Concepts / definitions: </u>

Long-term liabilities or noncurrent liabilities are knowns as obligations that companies have to pay in more than 1 year (12 months) or for some companies, after the company’s operating cycle (it is the time that the company takes to convert their inventory into cash).  

Examples: Long term leases and bonds (that are generally are designed to be paid in more than one year).

<u />

<u>Classification</u>

Notes Payable (current) $ 10,000

Accounts Payable    $ 5,000

Salaries Payable            $ 2,000

<u>Sales Tax Payable    $ 2,000</u>

<u>Current liabilities          $ 19,000</u>

Bonds Payable                  $ 50,000

<u>Notes Payable (long-term)  $ 20,000</u>

<u>Long-term liabilities         $ 70,000</u>

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A vice president of operations wants to evaluate the impact of reducing manufacturing expenses on the firm's return on assets. W
frosja888 [35]

Available Options Are:

a. Cost of Goods Sold

b. Net Profit Margin

c. None of these

d. Asset Turnover

Answer:

Option B. Net Profit Margin

Explanation:

The increase or decrease in cost of Goods sold can not tell whether the return on assets has increased or decreased becuase it would only tell that the expense are decreased or increased not the profit. Which means it only tells one side of the story hence Option A is incorrect.

Option B is correct because it talks about the profit. If the manufacturing cost has been decreased then the it must increase the profit. Because if the profits has increased then the return on asset will increase. Hence the Option B is correct here.

Option D is incorrect because asset turnover formula is:

Asset Turnover = Sales / Total Assets

The decrease in manufacturing cost will not increase the sales because sales and total assets are independent of manufacturing expenses hence the Option D is incorrect.

3 0
3 years ago
A(n) ____ might be represented with a single-valued attribute. Group of answer choices person’s phone number(s) person's driver'
kolezko [41]

Answer:

person's driver's license number

Explanation:

A single valued attribute means that a person or a thing can only have a single value for that attribute, for example, you can have only one social security number since having more than one is illegal.

Following the same logic, you could only have one driver's license number, since you can only have one license.

But you can have more than one cellphone, you can also have more than one car, and finally you may have attended more than one college.

4 0
3 years ago
If the number of people working is 2 standard deviations above the mean, how many standard deviations above do you expect sales
artcher [175]
R2 means the remainder of a certain number
8 0
2 years ago
Juicy Beauty manufactures and sells a face cream to small specialty stores in the greater Los Angeles area. It presents the mont
KatRina [158]

Answer: Please see explanation column for answer

Explanation:

Recasting  the income statement to emphasize contribution margin.

Juicy Beauty Operating Income Statement, June 2017

Units sold                                                            20,000

Revenues                                                         $200,000

Variable costs(subtract):

Variable manufacturing costs    $110,000

Variable marketing costs             $10,000

Total variable costs                                                 $120,000  

Contribution margin                                                   $80,000

Fixed costs

fixed manufacturing costs                         40,000

Fixed marketing and administrative costs 20,000

Total fixed cost                                                                $60,000

Operating income                                                           $20,000

Working  for income statement above =

Contribution margin = Revenue -Total  variable cost =$200,000- ($110,000 + $10,000) - $80,000

Operating income= Contribution margin - Total fixed cost = $80,000 - $($40,000 +$20,000) -=$20,000

2  The contribution margin percentage and breakeven point in units and revenues for June 2017.

Contribution margin percentage = ,Contribution margin/ Revenue x 100%

= $80,000/ $200,000 x 100= 40 %

Contribution margin per unit = ,Contribution margin/ units sold

                                                   80,000 / 20,000= $4 per unit

Break  even point units  = Total fixed cost/ ,Contribution margin per unit

 = $60,000/ $4=  15,000units

Break even revenue=

we first calculate the selling price = Revenue / units sold = $200,000/ 20,000 =$10

Break even revenue=Break even units x per unit sold = $15,000 x $10 = $150,000.

3. Margin of safety = units sold - break even point unit

20,000 - 15,000 =5000 units

4. If the sales is 16,000 and tax is 30% , Net income is

Units sold                     16,000

Revenue                     $160,000

Contribution margin    $64,000

Total fixed cost           - $60,000

Operation income       $4,000

tax at 30 %                  - $ 1200

Net income                 $2,800

working

Revenue = units sold x sale per unit = 16,000 x $10 = $160,000

Contribution margin = Revenue x contribution margin percentage = $160,000 x 40% = $64,000

Operation income = contribution margin - fixed costs= $64,000 - $60,000 = $4000

Tax = 30% of 4000 = $1200

Net income = $4000 - $1200 = $2,800

3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Daves Inc. recently hired you as a consultant to estimate the company's WACC. You have obtained the following information. (1) T
inn [45]

Answer:

9.315%

Explanation:

The computation of WACC is shown below:-

But before that we need to do the following calculations

PV -$1,000

PMT 80

N 20

FV $1,000

Compute IY 8%

After tax cost of Debt = Before tax cost of debt × (1 - tax rate)

= 8% × (1 - 25%)

= 6%

According to the CAPM,

Cost of Equity =Risk free Rate + (Beta × Market Risk Premium)

= 4.5% + (1.2 × 5.5%)

= 11.10%

Weight of Equity = 100% - 35%

= 65%

WACC = (Weight of Equity × Cost of Equity) + (Weight of debt × Cost of debt)

= (65% × 11.10) + (35% × 6)

= 9.315%

8 0
3 years ago
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